superfical structures midterm review

The cephalic vein is a superficial vein it runs in

a. the lateral side of the thigh

b. the lateral side of the upper extremity

c. the medial side of the upper extremity

d. the back of the leg

the lateral side of the upper extremity

Great saphenous vein empties into

a. Popliteal vein

b. Common femoral vein

c. IVC

d. Common iliac vein

Common femoral vein

The profunda femoris vein joins the superficial femoral vein to form the ________________ vein.

a. external iliac vein

b. the popliteal vein

c. The common femoral vain

d. posterior tibial vein

The common femoral vain

The lesser saphenous vein drains into

a. Common femoral vein

b. superficial femoral vein

c. popliteal vein

d. the greater saphenous vein

popliteal vein

The layers of the arterial wall from inner to outer are

a. Tunica media, tunica intima, tunica adventitia

b. Tunica adventitia, tunica media,tunica intima

c. Tunica intima, tunica media and tunica adventitia

d. Tunica adventitia, tunica intima, tunica media

Tunica intima, tunica media and tunica adventitia

Which of the following is NOT a deep vein of the lower extremity?

a. superficial femoral

b. profunda femoris

c. greater saphenous

d. anterior tibial

greater saphenous

This is the branch of Subclavian artery is

a. Facial

b. Occipital

c. Lingual

d. Vertebral

Vertebral

Perforating veins connect the superficial and the deep venous systems. Blood flow in the perforating veins is normally from the:

a. superficial system to the deep system

b. deep system to the superficial system

c.distal veins to the central veins

d. central veins to the distal veins

superficial system to the deep system

Which vessel wall layer is thicker in arteries than in veins?

a. Vasa vasorum

b. Tunica externa

c. Tunica media

d. Tunica intima

Tunica media

Which vessel does the anterior tibial vein drain into?

a. femoral V

b. tibio peroneal trunk

c. Popliteal V

d. dorsalis pedis V

Popliteal V

The popliteal trifurcation is actually a double bifurcation. Which pairs form this two bifurcation?

a. PTA and Tibioperoneal trunk and then ATA and peroneal Art

b. Peroneal and tibioperoneal trunk then ATA and PTA

c. ATA and PoP then PTA and peroneal

d. PTA and pop and ATA and peroneal

e. ATA and Tibioperoneal trunk and then PTA and peroneal

ATA and Tibioperoneal trunk and then PTA and peroneal

What is the name of the tiny network of vessels that supply/drain blood to/from the vessel wall?

a. Arterioles

b. Vasa vasorum

c. Venules

d. Capillaries

Vasa vasorum

SSV drains into

a. GSV

b. IVC

c. Common iliac

d. Popliteal vein

Popliteal vein

The SVC and IVC both terminate in the:

a. Right Ventricle

b. Left Ventricle

c. Right atrium

d. Left atrium

Right atrium

What is the statement about the ECA is not correct?

a. It demonstrates lower diastolic velocities compared to ICA

b. It supplies the neck mouth face

c. It supplies the low resistance bed

d. It supplies brain

It supplies the low resistance bed

The ______________ artery branches directly from the aortic arch

a. Left CCA

b. Right CCA

c. Right brachial

d. Left axillary

Left CCA

The radial and ulnar veins merge to form the ___________________ at the ________________________ fossa.

a. brachial vein, antecubital

b. axillary vein, antecubital

c. brachial vein, popliteal

d. axillary vein, axillary

brachial vein, antecubital

The superior vena cava is formed by the union of the;

a. inferior vena cava and right innominate vein

b. innominate and right subclavian vein

c. right and left subclavian vein

d. right and left brachiocephalic vein

right and left brachiocephalic vein

Which of the following arteries does not usually have a pair of veins of the same name?

a. Gastrocnemius artery

b. Brachial artery

c. Femoral artery

d. Peroneal artery

Gastrocnemius artery

The right common carotid artery is a branch of which artery?

a. innominate artery

b.aortic arch

c. right subclavian artery

d. right vertebral artery

innominate artery

All of the following are paired veins that follow the corresponding arteries EXCEPT

a. Radial vein(s)

b. Femoral vein(s)

c. Posterior tibial vein(s)

d. Peroneal vein (s)

Femoral vein(s)

The gastrocnemius veins empty into the

__________________.

a. Distal SFV

b. Distal profunda vein

c. Great saphenous vein

d. Popliteal vein

Popliteal vein

The radial veins are paired and drain:

a. The medial hand and forearm

b. The medial upper arm

c. The lateral hand and forearm

d. The lateral upper arm

The lateral hand and forearm

The popliteal artery ___________ the popliteal vein.

a. is larger than

b. courses posterior to

c. is more tortuous than

d. courses anterior to

courses posterior to

Which of the following vessels join the brachial veins to form the axillary vein?

a. subclavian V

b. innominate V

c. cephalic V

d. basilic V

basilic V

Which of the following veins originates medially in wrist, adjacent to ulnar bone, courses superiorly along the medial arm to join brachial vein in axilla

a. Cephalic vein

b. Basilic vein

c. Radial vein

d. Ulnar vein

Basilic vein

All of the following are tributaries to the popliteal vein, except:

a. posterior tibial vein

b. peroneal vein

c. femoral vein

d. small sephanous vein

femoral vein

The artery that has a branch coming off of it in the neck is the

a. Vertebral artery

b. Middle cerebral artery

c. External carotid artery

d. Internal carotid artery

External carotid artery

Which of the following is part of the deep venous system of the forearm?

a. Radial vein

b. Basilic vein

c. Antecubital vein

d. Cephalic vein

Radial vein

The vertebral arteries unite to form which of the following arteries

a. Posterior communicating artery

b. Posterior cerebral artery

c. basilar artery

d. Both A and C

Basilar artery

The location of the epididymis is most accurately described as:

a. posterior to the testis

b. posterior and medial to the testis

c. posterior and lateral to the testis

d. anterior and medial to the testis

posterior and lateral to the testis

The exocrine function of the testicles is to produce:

a. Testosterone

b. Human chorionic gonadotropin

c. Alpha-fetoprotein

d. Sperm

Sperm

What is the most common sonographic appearance of a malignant testicular mass?

a. hyperechoic with diffuse calcifications

b. complex mass with thick septations

c. cystic mass with ring calcifications

d. hypoechoic mass

hypoechoic mass

Which of the following best describes a spermatocele?

a. The most common malignant neoplasm of the scrotum

b. A benign intratesticular cyst

c. A simple-appearing cyst, found within the head of epididymis, that may contain sperms

d. A dilated group of veins found within the scrotum

A simple-appearing cyst, found within the head of epididymis, that may contain sperms

A dilated group of veins found within the scrotum is defined as a:

a. Varicocele

b. Spermatocele

c. Seminoma

d. Hydrocele

Varicocele

Germ cell tumors mestatasize to

a. breast

b. lungs

c. para aortic lymph nodes

d. all of the above

para aortic lymph nodes

Which of the following is considered as a risk factor for

testicular cancer

a. Orchitis

b. Macrolithiasis

c. Cryptorchidism

d. Smoking

Cryptorchidism

Which of the following tumors corresponds to an

elevated HCG in males?

a. sertoli cell tumor

b. choricarcinoma

c. Leydig cell

choricarcinoma

Most malignant lymphomas of testicle are

a. non-Hodgkin’s type

b. Hodgkin’s type

non-Hodgkin’s type

This sagittal image of the left inguinal canal in an 8-month-old male infant is most likely demonstrating a(n):

a. lipoma

b. inguinal hernia

c. undescended testicle

d. enlarged lymph node

undescended testicle

The epididymis connects to the testis by which of the

following structures?

a. medium raphe

b. vas deferens

c. rete testis

d. spermatic cord

rete testis

You have been asked to perform a study to rule out cryptorchidism. The term cryptorchidism denotes:

a. One or both of the testicles has a malignancy

b. The patient lacks the normal fixation of the testis to the posterior scrotal wall

c. One or both of the testicles has not descended into the scrotum

d. The patient has been kicked in the scrotum

One or both of the testicles has not descended into the scrotum

A patient presents with a history of scrotal swelling and tenderness. He denies any scrotal trauma. On the basis of this clinical history, the sonographic findings are most consistent with a

a. hydrocele.

b. urinoma

c. spermatocele

d. hematocele

hydrocele

A 23-year-old man presents to the ultrasound department with a history of infertility. Which of the following is associated with male infertility?

a. permatocele

b. Pyocele

c. Varicocele

d. Hydrocele

Varicocele

In which mass onion ring appearance is seen?

a. epidermoid cyst

b. tunica albuginea cyst

c. testicular microlithiasis

d. teratocarcinoma

epidermoid cyst

Spermatogenesis occurs within the:

a. Tunica albuginea

b. Rete testis

c. Seminiferous tubules

d. Mediastinum testis

Seminiferous tubules

Which of the following lab values may be elevated with a testicular malignancy?

a. PSA

b. AFP

c. ALP

d. AST

AFP

Which of the following pathologies is the most common cause of acute scrotal pain?

a. orchitis

b. varicocele

c. epididymitis

d. testicular torsion

epididymitis

Cryptorchdism is associated with an increased risk in developing:

a. orchitis

b. epididymitis

c. testicular torsion

d. microcalcifications

testicular torsion

What is the most common sonographic appearance of a malignant testicular mass?

a. hyperechoic with diffuse calcifications

b. complex mass with thick septations

c. cystic mass with ring calcifications

d. hypoechoic mass

hypoechoic mass

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with the diagnosis of testicular torsion except:

a. Hyperemic flow within the testis

b. Hypoechoic testis

c. Reactive hydrocele

d. Decreased intratesticular flow (as compared with the asymptomatic testis)

Hyperemic flow within the testis

Sudden onset of severe scrotal pain in an adolescent patient is most suspicious for:

a. orchitis

b. varicocele

c. epididymitis

d. testicular torsion

testicular torsion

Which of the following structures supports the posterior border of the testes?

a. epididymis

b. rete testes

c. spermatic cord

d. mediastinum testis

spermatic cord

A fibrous sheath enclosing the testis describes which of the following structures?

a. rete testis

b. vas deferens

c. tunica albuginea

d. tunica vaginalis

tunica albuginea

An asymptomatic patient presents with a palpable right scrotal mass discovered during a recent physical examination. The sonographic finding is most consistent with which of the following abnormalities?

a. varicocele

b. pyocele

c. testicular cyst

d. spermatocele

spermatocele

Which is the most common mixed germ cell neoplasm

a. epidermoid cyst

b. abscess

c. teratocarcinoma

d. embryonal cell carcinoma

teratocarcinoma

What scrotal abnormality is caused by incompetent valves within the pampiniform plexus?

a.Testicular carcinoma

b. Testicular hematocele

c. Testicular torsion

d. Varicocele

Varicocele

A 45-year-old patient presents with acute scrotal pain after a mountain-biking trip. On the basis of this clinical history, the sonographic findings are most suspicious for which of the following abnormalities?

a. hematocele.

b. varicocele.

c. epididymitis

d. scrotal hernia

epididymitis (i dont have pic so idrk)

A hydrocele is defined as an abnormal fluid collection between the:

a. tunica albuginea and the tunica vaginalis

b. two layers of the tunica vaginalis

c. spermatic cord and the tunica vaginalis

d. two layers of the tunica albuginea

two layers of the tunica vaginalis

Intratesticular cyst usually originates from

a. rete testis

b. tunica vaginalis

c. epididymis

d. vas deferens

rete testis

Which portion of penis contains urethra?

a. corpus spongiosum

b.corpus cavernosa

c. tunica albuginea

d. Buck's fascia

corpus spongiosum

Decreased urine output is most commonly linked with an abnormality in which of the following structures?

a. testis

b. scrotum

c. epididymis

d. prostate gland

prostate gland

Which of the following is NOT a zone within the glandular tissue of the prostate gland?

a. Peripheral zone

b. Epithelial zone

c. Central zone

d. Periurethral zone

Epithelial zone

Which best represents the normal Doppler flow pattern of deeper cavernosal artery?

a. high resistance flow

b. low resistance

c. flow reversal at systole

d. flow reversal at diastole

high resistance flow

What aids in sonographic demonstration of urethral structure with sonography?

a. use of stand off pad

b. color Doppler

c. fluid distention

d. Shadowing

fluid distention

Which of the following cysts is associated with genital anomalies such as hypospadias?

a. Müllerian duct cyst

b. Utricle cyst

c. Seminal vesicle cyst

d. Prostatic cyst

Utricle cyst

Fibromuscular stroma lies

a. anteriorly

b. medially

c. laterally

d. posteriorly

anteriorly

Which region of the prostate gland comprises only 5% ---10% of the glandular tissue?

a. central zone

b .peripheral zone

c. transitional zone

d. periurethral glands

transitional zone

Peyronie's disease is most commonly visualized with sonography along what segment of the penis?

a. glans penis

b. proximal

c. mid

d. distal

distal

Which blood test is used to identify men at increased risk of prostate cancer?

a. AFP

b. CA-1

c. PSA

d. AST

PSA

Peyronie's Disease is an inflammatory condition in which fibrous nodules and later calcifications form along the:

a. cavernosal artery

b. tunica albuginea

c. corpus spongiosum

d. glans penis

tunica albuginea

Patients with prostate cancer may present with which of the following:

a. An abnormal PSA level

b. An abnormal DRE

c. Bladder outlet obstruction

d. Patients may present with all of the above symptoms

Patients may present with all of the above symptoms

Correct sonographic investigation for evaluation of vascular impotence would include all of the following except:

a. scan in flaccid condition

b. obtain Doppler spectrum without angle correction

c. measure PSV and EDV velocities

d. Measure cavernosal artery diameter

obtain Doppler spectrum without angle correction

This zone is the 25% of glandular part of the prostate and relatively resistant to disease

a. Central zone

b. peripheral zone

c. transitional zone

d. periuretheral zone

Central zone

A 60-year-old patient presents with a history of urinary frequency and a decrease in urinary output. These clinical symptoms are most commonly associated with:

a. prostatitis

b.orchitis

c. prostate carcinoma

d. benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

The ejaculatory ducts course through this zone that accounts for 20% of the prostate

a. Central zone

b. peripheral zone

c. transitional zone

d. periuretheral zone

Central zone

Sonographic appearance of carcinoma of Penis are all except

a. heterogenous

b. ill defined mass

c. hypovascular

d. sonographic appearance is variable

hypovascular

Which structure travels within the central zone of the prostate gland and joins the urethra?

a. Ejaculatory duct

b. Seminal vesicle

c. Vas deferens

d. Verumontanum

Ejaculatory duct

Your patient states that he has had a transurethral resection or TURP procedure. What condition does this procedure treat?

a. Prostate cancer

b.Prostatic abscess

c.Prostatitis

d. BPH

BPH

Which of the following structures transports sperm from the testes to the prostatic urethra?

a. rete testis

b. spermatic cord

c. vas deferens

d. seminal vesicles

vas deferens

Which of the following statements regarding BPH is FALSE?

a. BPH is commonly seen in men over the age of 40 with a peak incidence around 60

b. BPH causes the prostate to appear enlarged

c. BPH affects the central zone of the prostate

d. BPH causes urinary symptoms of frequency, nocturia, and difficulty starting a stream

BPH affects the central zone of the prostate

The apex of the prostate is located inferior to the verumontanum and is made up predominantly of the:

a. Peripheral zone

b. Periurethral zone

c. Central zone

d. Transition zone

Peripheral zone

Which region of Penis that is generally affected with malignancy?

a. glans penis

b. corpus cavernosum

c. corpus spongiosum

d. tunica albugnia

glans penis

What transducer is optimal for proper visualization of penis?

a. 5 MHz — 7 MHz curvilinear

b. 7 MHz-9 MHz sector

c. 10 MHz— 12 MHz curvilinear

d. 7---- 11 MHz linear

7---- 11 MHz linear

Which of the following regions in the prostate most commonly develops benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?

a.central zone

b.peripheral zone

c.transitional zone

d.periurethral glands

transitional zone

Where does the cavernosal artery course within the corposa cavernosa?

a. superficial

b. centrally

c. dorsal portion

d. ventral portion

centrally

The main supply to the prostate gland is through the:

a. urethral artery

b. capsular artery

c. inferior vesical artery

d. prostaticovesical arteries

prostaticovesical arteries

Which of the following most accurately describes the echogenicity and location of the seminal vesicles?

a.heterogeneous structures located anterior to the urinary bladder

b. homogeneous structures located inferior to the prostate gland

c. hypoechoic structures located superior to the prostate gland

d. homogeneous structures located medial to the vas deferens

hypoechoic structures located superior to the prostate gland

What is the normal range of PSA levels

a. >4

b. <4

<4

Which of the following structures lines the prostatic urethra?

a.vas deferens

b.verumontanum

c.periurethral glands

d.seminal vesicles

periurethral glands