Business Management FBLA Quizzes

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209 Terms

1
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Only large companies with several employees need managers.

False

2
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A good manager may occasionally make a decision contrary to generally accepted principles of management.

True

3
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Senior managers of very large corporations don't want their middle managers to think like entrepreneurs.

False

4
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4. Forepersons, crew leaders, and store managers are all examples of _____ managers.

A. middle

B. supervisory

C. senior

D. beginning

B. Supervisory

5
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5. A sole proprietorship is a business owned by _____. A. one company

B. relatives

C. one person

D. the bank

C. One Person

6
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6. _____ percent of the businesses in the United States are small businesses.

A. 45

B. 67

C. 90

D. 98

D. 98

7
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7. Conceptual Skills

A. Negotiating salaries with workers

B. Taking inventory of merchandise in a store

C. Deciding how to invest company profits

C. Deciding how to invest company profits

8
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8. Human Relations Skills

A. Negotiating salaries with workers

B. Taking inventory of merchandise in a store

C. Deciding how to invest company profits

A. Negotiating salaries with workers

9
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9. Technical Skills

A. Negotiating salaries with workers

B. Taking inventory of merchandise in a store

C. Deciding how to invest company profits

B. Taking inventory of merchandise in a store

10
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Taylor thought that explaining the principles of scientific management would only confuse workers.

False

11
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2. Centralization always makes a company's management stronger.

False

12
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3. In general, Theory Y managers give their employees the freedom to make creative decisions.

True

13
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4. In the United States, the Industrial Revolution began in approximately _____.

A. 1960

B. 1789

C. 1900

D. 1860

1860

14
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5. A _____ occurs when one party maintains total control over a type of industry.

A. takeover

B. landslide

C. monopoly

D. hierarchy of needs

C. monopoly

15
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6. Consider quality as well as price in awarding business is a principle of _____.

A. total quality management

B. Maslow's hierarchy of needs

C. scientific management

D. the Hawthorne effect

A. total quality management

16
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7. Theory X

A. Assumes that employees will work best when

given some collective decision making power and some emphasis on personal responsibility.

B. Assumes that people need strict rules in order to perform well.

C. Assumes that people will perform well if they are put in the right environment.

B. Assumes that people need strict rules in order to perform well.

17
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8. Theory Y

A. Assumes that employees will work best when

given some collective decision making power and some emphasis on personal responsibility.

B. Assumes that people need strict rules in order to perform well.

C. Assumes that people will perform well if they are put in the right environment.

C. Assumes that people will perform well if they are put in the right environment.

18
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9. Theory Z

A. Assumes that employees will work best when

given some collective decision making power and some emphasis on personal responsibility.

B. Assumes that people need strict rules in order to perform well.

C. Assumes that people will perform well if they are put in the right environment.

A. Assumes that employees will work best when

given some collective decision making power and some emphasis on personal responsibility.

19
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10. According to Maslow, which need would a worker fill first?

A. need to earn enough money

B. need for a safe work environment

C. needs are at the same level

D. depends on the personality of the worker

A. need to earn enough money

20
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1. The activities you enjoy today are important to consider when choosing your future career.

True

21
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2. Professional associations are too specialized to be very helpful to a beginner deciding on a future career.

False

22
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A young person without a long job history might benefit from using a skills résumé.

True

23
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4. _____ show changes or movement in a certain area.

A. Values

B. Learning styles

C. Networks

D. Trends

D. Trends

24
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A job applicant should always include a _____ when sending a résumé to a potential employer.

A. self-addressed-stamped-envelope

B. fax number

C. cover letter

D. reply deadline

C. cover letter

25
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6. Responsibility, achievement, recognition, relationship, compassion, and courage are examples of _____.

A. learning styles

B. personalities

C. values

D. lifestyles

C. values

26
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7. Bodily/Kinesthetic

A. Learns best by making categories, classifying, and working with patterns.

B. Learns best by observing, collecting, identifying, and organizing patterns.

C. Learns best by interacting with people and objects in real space.

C. Learns best by interacting with people and objects in real space.

27
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8. Naturalistic

A. Learns best by making categories, classifying, and working with patterns.

B. Learns best by observing, collecting, identifying, and organizing patterns.

C. Learns best by interacting with people and objects in real space.

B. Learns best by observing, collecting, identifying, and organizing patterns.

28
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9. Logical/Mathematical

A. Learns best by making categories, classifying, and working with patterns.

B. Learns best by observing, collecting, identifying, and organizing patterns.

C. Learns best by interacting with people and objects in real space.

A. Learns best by making categories, classifying, and working with patterns.

29
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What are some examples of nonprofit organizations?

A. The Girl Scouts

B. The Museum of Tolerance

C. The Sierra Club

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

30
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A business code of ethics is a set of unspoken guidelines about proper behavior in the workplace.

False

31
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Pricing, billing, and contracting practices are areas generally covered by a code of ethics.

True

32
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Performing a social audit can only hurt a company's reputation.

False

33
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A person faces _____ when it is not easy to decide what the correct course of action should be.

A. dismissal

B. an ethical dilemma

C. a code of ethics

D. a lawsuit

B. an ethical dilemma

34
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False advertising is prohibited by the _____ act.

A. Wheeler-Lea

B. Sherman

C. Clayton

D. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic

A. Wheeler-Lea

35
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The National Environmental Policy Act created the _____ in 1969.

A. FDA

B. EPA

C. FCC

D. none of the above

B. EPA

36
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Profit Maximization

A. Businesses have obligations to stakeholders.

B. Social issues are not the concern of businesses.

C. Businesses have obligations to their employees, creditors, and customers.

B. Social issues are not the concern of businesses.

37
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Social Involvement

A. Businesses have obligations to stakeholders.

B. Social issues are not the concern of businesses.

C. Businesses have obligations to their employees, creditors, and customers.

A. Businesses have obligations to stakeholders.

38
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Trusteeship Management

A. Businesses have obligations to stakeholders.

B. Social issues are not the concern of businesses. C. Businesses have obligations to their employees, creditors, and customers.

C. Businesses have obligations to their employees, creditors, and customers.

39
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How can businesses support their employees' involvement in charitable organizations?

A. give time off to employees for volunteering

B. match employee donations to charitable causes C. both

D. neither

C. both

40
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The Uniform Commercial Code was established to protect consumers from mislabeled and impure foods, drugs, and cosmetics.

False

41
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Equal Opportunity Employment laws prohibit employment discrimination on the basis of religious affiliation

True

42
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Unemployment insurance only covers workers who have been at a job for a certain length of time

True

43
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The law regulating how two or more people can set up a partnership is called the _____.

A. Wheeler-Lea Act

B. Corporate Partnership Act

C. Uniform Partnership Act

D. Sole Proprietor Act

C. Uniform Partnership Act

44
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A patent gives an inventor and company exclusive rights to make, use, and sell their inventions for ___ years.

A. 100

B. 25

C. 7

D. 17

D. 17

45
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The National Labor Relations Act regulates the relationship between businesses and _____.

A. unions

B. the government

C. the IRS

D. employment agencies

A. unions

46
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Consumer Law

A. Regulates how businesses can set themselves up to operate as companies.

B. Protects individuals against business activities that might be harmful to them.

C. Regulates how businesses enter into contracts with other businesses and consumers.

B. Protects individuals against business activities that might be harmful to them.

47
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Commercial Law

A. Regulates how businesses can set themselves up to operate as companies.

B. Protects individuals against business activities that might be harmful to them.

C. Regulates how businesses enter into contracts with other businesses and consumers.

C. Regulates how businesses enter into contracts with other businesses and consumers.

48
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Corporate Law

A. Regulates how businesses can set themselves up to operate as companies.

B. Protects individuals against business activities that might be harmful to them.

C. Regulates how businesses enter into contracts with other businesses and consumers.

A. Regulates how businesses can set themselves up to operate as companies.

49
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What do zoning laws regulate?

A. Whether a business can be a partnership, sole proprietorship, or corporation.

B. The areas of a city or municipality where a business can be located.

C. Commerce between states.

D. The sale of liquor and tobacco to minors.

B. The areas of a city or municipality where a business can be located.

50
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When the price of a product goes down, companies are less willing to supply more of the product.

True

51
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Payroll is an example of a fixed cost.

False

52
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Managers tend to pay special attention to leading economic indicators when making decisions about the future of the company.

True

53
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_____ are determined by subtracting revenues from costs.

A. Losses

B. Taxes

C. Profits

D. Prices

C. Profits

54
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The price at which supply equals demand is called the _____.

A. coincident index

B. equilibrium price

C. market price

D. value price

B. equilibrium price

55
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The _____ describes the expansion and contraction of many industries at once.

A. economy

B. recession

C. leading index

D. business cycle

D. business cycle

56
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Depression

A. Many workers are laid off and wages and benefits are less than desirable.

B. Some workers are laid off as businesses cut production.

C. Unemployment is low and wages are competitive.

A. Many workers are laid off and wages and benefits are less than desirable.

57
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Expansion

A. Many workers are laid off and wages and benefits are less than desirable.

B. Some workers are laid off as businesses cut production.

C. Unemployment is low and wages are competitive.

C. Unemployment is low and wages are competitive.

58
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Contraction

A. Many workers are laid off and wages and benefits are less than desirable.

B. Some workers are laid off as businesses cut production.

C. Unemployment is low and wages are competitive.

B. Some workers are laid off as businesses cut production.

59
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What factor(s) would you have to consider when calculating the opportunity cost of taking a luxury cruise?

A. The risk of an accident at sea

B. The bills that could be paid with the money used to pay for the cruise

C. Both

D. Neither

B. The bills that could be paid with the money used to pay for the cruise

60
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Countries who have the absolute advantage in the production of a commodity should always invest in the production and trade of that product.

False

61
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The United States spends more to purchase imported goods than any other country in the world.

True

62
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Companies who do not want to invest a significant amount of money on foreign operations costs might consider selling products through a foreign intermediary.

True

63
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A tax on imports is called _____.

A. a tariff

B. an embargo

C. a quota

D. comparative advantage

A. a tariff

64
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Restrictions on trade are reduced or eliminated in _____.

A. international trade

B. the global economy

C. the balance of trade

D. a free trade area

D. a free trade area

65
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It is appropriate to arrive to a business meeting late in _____.

A. China

B. Switzerland

C. Indonesia

D. none of the above

C. Indonesia

66
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Licensing agreement

A. Allows a company to expand both markets and operations

and take advantage of cheaper foreign labor. B. Allows a company to gain access to new markets

by partnering with well-known firms in the home country.

C. Allows a company to gain share of the profits made when

a foreign business sells the home company's goods.

C. Allows a company to gain share of the profits made when

a foreign business sells the home company's goods.

67
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Multinational corporation

A. Allows a company to expand both markets and operations

and take advantage of cheaper foreign labor.

B. Allows a company to gain access to new markets

by partnering with well-known firms in the home country.

C. Allows a company to gain share of the profits made when

a foreign business sells the home company's goods.

A. Allows a company to expand both markets and operations

68
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Strategic alliance

A. Allows a company to expand both markets and operations

and take advantage of cheaper foreign labor.

B. Allows a company to gain access to new markets

by partnering with well-known firms in the home country.

C. Allows a company to gain share of the profits made when

a foreign business sells the home company's goods.

B. Allows a company to gain access to new markets

69
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Why do companies diversify their markets?

A. To respond to advances in civil rights.

B. To offset poor sales in a particular area with stronger sales in another.

C. Both

D. Neither

B. To offset poor sales in a particular area with stronger sales in another.

70
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Rational decision making is always better than intuitive decision making.

False

71
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If a manager fails to call back a top job candidate within 72 hours, his or her company risks losing the candidate to another company.

True

72
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In a brainstorming session, members of a group cannot criticize any idea.

True

73
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Managers who make decisions based on a hunch are practicing _____ decision making.

A. rational

B. intuitive

C. deductive

D. poor

B. intuitive

74
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The first step in the Meyers model for creative decision making is _____.

A. problem finding

B. idea finding

C. recognition

D. fact finding

C. recognition

75
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_____ can help managers come up with creative solutions to problems.

A. Brainstorming

B. Brainwriting

C. Wish lists

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

76
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Collaborative

A. Manager shares information with a few subordinates and

then asks them individually for advice before making a

decision.

B. Manager makes the decision alone, with little or no

advice.

C. Manager shares information and asks for input from

subordinates as a group before making a decision.

C. Manager shares information and asks for input from

subordinates as a group before making a decision.

77
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Leading

A. Manager shares information with a few subordinates

and then asks them individually for advice before

making a decision.

B. Manager makes the decision alone, with little or no

advice.

C. Manager shares information and asks for input from

subordinates as a group before making a decision.

A. Manager shares information with a few subordinates

78
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Autocratic

A. Manager shares information with a few subordinates

and then asks them individually for advice before

making a decision.

B. Manager makes the decision alone, with little or no advice.

C. Manager shares information and asks for input from

subordinates as a group before making a decision.

B. Manager makes the decision alone, with little or no advice.

79
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Which is a potential drawback to team decision making?

A. The group may attach itself to the first potential positive solution.

B. Several people with different backgrounds might be

assigned to the group.

C. Both

D. Neither

A. The group may attach itself to the first potential positive solution.

80
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Over half of employees' time at work is spent listening.

True

81
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When writing reports that your superiors will see it is advisable to include many technical terms so that you can demonstrate your knowledge of the field.

False

82
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A good active listener will wait until a speaker has completely finished his or her statement before asking any questions or making any comments.

False

83
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By observing body language, or _____, a manager can gain additional information about a speaker.

A. speaking

B. active listening

C. interrupting

D. nonverbal cues

D. nonverbal cues

84
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The KIS principle stands for _____.

A. keep it simple

B. kindness, integrity, service

C. kindred information systems

D. keep information secure

A. keep it simple

85
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The most common form of written business communication is the _____.

A. business letter

B. fax

C. memo

D. email

C. memo

86
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Oral communication plus written communication

A. Telling employees that the company's new fitness center is now open.

B. Telling employees that the company will no longer allow staff to work overtime.

C. Telling an employee that his or her 90-minute lunches are too long.

B. Telling employees that the company will no longer allow staff to work overtime.

87
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Oral communication alone

A. Telling employees that the company's new fitness center is now open.

B. Telling employees that the company will no longer allow staff to work overtime.

C. Telling an employee that his or her 90-minute lunches are too long.

C. Telling an employee that his or her 90-minute lunches are too long.

88
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Written communication alone

A. Telling employees that the company's new fitness center is now open.

B. Telling employees that the company will no longer allow staff to work overtime.

C. Telling an employee that his or her 90-minute lunches are too long.

A. Telling employees that the company's new fitness center is now open.

89
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If you were at a job interview, what sorts of nonverbal cues would you want to avoid?

A. fidgeting

B. shyly looking down at the floor

C. both

D. neither

C. both

90
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Divestiture is when an entire company is sold or dissolved.

False

91
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Customers are willing to pay more for a product that differentiates itself from its competitors through overall cost leadership.

False

92
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Good strategic managers continuously evaluate and respond to change.

True

93
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Strategic planning is _____ planning done by a company's senior managers.

A. emergency

B. long-range

C. occasional

D. tax

B. long-range

94
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In a SWOT analysis, a manager considers a company's _____.

A. weaknesses

B. threats

C. opportunities

D. all of the above

D. all of the above

95
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A _____ outlines a company's reason for existing.

A. formulating strategy

B. policy statement

C. procedure manual

D. mission statement

D. mission statement

96
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Retrenchment Strategy

A. When a company plans to reverse negative trends.

B. When a company plans to expand sales, products, or personnel.

C. When a company plans to keep operating at the same level that it has been for years.

A. When a company plans to reverse negative trends.

97
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Stability Strategy

A. When a company plans to reverse negative trends.

B. When a company plans to expand sales, products, or personnel.

C. When a company plans to keep operating at the same level that it has been for years.

C. When a company plans to keep operating at the same level that it has been for years.

98
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Growth Strategy

A. When a company plans to reverse negative trends.

B. When a company plans to expand sales, products, or personnel.

C. When a company plans to keep operating at the same level that it has been for years.

B. When a company plans to expand sales, products, or personnel.

99
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What factors might make it difficult to implement a new strategy?

A. Old company policies

B. Training costs for new job tasks

C. Both

D. Neither

C. Both

100
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Managers must consider community attitudes and living conditions when selecting a site for business operations.

True