Intro to Vas and Car

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Last updated 12:38 AM on 7/3/26
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109 Terms

1
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What can a delayed arterial upstroke and an increased Time To Peak (TTP) signify in a spectral Doppler waveform?

a stenosis proximal to the sample volume

2
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Which wave vibrational frequency (in cycles per second) is generally used to describe "ultrasound" waves?

>20,000

3
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T/F: Changing the angle of the color box Will Not have any effect on the appearance of the color flow image.

False

4
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What may happen to a spectral Doppler waveform if the gain is set too low?

a waveform may not be displayed

5
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According to your textbook, the sample volume width in a normal artery should not exceed what fraction of the vessel's diameter?

2/3

6
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What is one of the major disadvantages of CW Doppler?

lack of depth discrimination

7
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In a pulsed Doppler system, which term refers to the number of pulses transmitted per second?

pulse repetition frequency (PRF)

8
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Why is a vessel angle of 0 degrees most favorable?

it allows more accurate velocity calculations

9
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Where should the sample volume be placed during the spectral Doppler examination of a normal artery?

in the center of the vessel

10
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What spectral Doppler waveform characteristics are present when the sample volume is located within a high-grade arterial stenosis?

all are correct

11
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What is the range for the angle of insonation for vascular scanning?

45-60 degrees

12
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<p><span>What causes this "notch" (indicated with the yellow arrow) in the envelope of this spectral Doppler waveform of a normal artery?</span></p>

What causes this "notch" (indicated with the yellow arrow) in the envelope of this spectral Doppler waveform of a normal artery?

aortic valve closure

13
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What may happen to a spectral Doppler waveform if the sample volume is set too wide during the examination of a normal artery?

slower blood flow velocities near the vessel walls may be displayed

14
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Which of the following statements is Most Correct in describing the color flow appearance of variations in blood flow velocity?

all are correct

15
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What is the purpose of angling (steering) the color box during color flow imaging?

creates a better Doppler angle

16
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What is one of the major advantages of continuous wave (CW) Doppler?

resistance to aliasing at higher flow velocities

17
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What happens to the imaging capability of an ultrasound system if too many focal zones are utilized during cardiovascular examinations?

decreased frame rate

18
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What may happen to a color flow image if the PRF (Velocity Scale) is set too low?

aliasing

19
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What type of spectral Doppler waveform is usually seen in a normal peripheral artery?

triphasic

20
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What happens to the Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF) as the sample volume depth increases with a pulsed Doppler system?

decreases

21
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Which term describes sound waves whose frequency is below 20 Hz?

infrasound

22
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What is the first step to take in order to eliminate aliasing in a spectral Doppler waveform?

increase the PRF (velocity scale) settings

23
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What may happen to a spectral Doppler waveform if the gain is set too high?

a false indication of spectral broadening

24
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Why is the sample volume placed in the middle of a normal artery during a spectral Doppler examination?

this is where the fastest blood flow velocities are located

25
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What is a major advantage of using the Resistive Index (RI) or Pulsatility index (PI) to evaluate arterial blood flow?

the Doppler angle is ignored

26
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The term for the junction that connects cardiac muscle fibers is

Intercalated disks

27
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True or False: Cardiac tamponade is considered a life-threatening condition.

True

28
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True or False: The heart receives oxygenated blood during systole.

False

29
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Which of the following is the origin of the first heart sound ("lubb")?

ventricular contraction when AV valves are closing

30
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The layers of the heart from inner to outer are:

Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardium

31
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Which term refers to the basic protein units responsible for contraction of the cardiac muscle?

Sarcomeres

32
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True or False: The right heart functions as the systemic pump and under high pressure.

False

33
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Which two coronary arteries are the first to branch off of the aorta?

right and left coronary arteries

34
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Which of the following determines coronary artery dominance?

artery giving rise to posterior descending artery

35
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The atrioventricular valves differ from the semilunar valves in all but the following?

Keep blood flowing forward

36
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According to your textbook, where do most carotid artery stenoses occur?

CCA bifurcation

37
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<p><span>This is a longitudinal color flow image from an earlier version of your textbook of the carotid bifurcation In the associated line drawing, #40 is the CCA and # 40b is the ECA. #3 is an area of plaque in the ICA. What is #6 pointing to?</span></p>

This is a longitudinal color flow image from an earlier version of your textbook of the carotid bifurcation In the associated line drawing, #40 is the CCA and # 40b is the ECA. #3 is an area of plaque in the ICA. What is #6 pointing to?

aliasing due to flow acceleration past the plaque

38
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If your transducer is in the proper longitudinal orientation on a normal Common Carotid Artery (CCA) during color Doppler imaging, which way should the blood be flowing when you are looking at the image monitor?

from the right to the left side of the image monitor

39
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A normal vertebral artery exhibits what kind of flow pattern when examined with spectral Doppler?

biphasic

40
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Which arteries normally bring blood into the Circle of Willis (COW)?

internal carotids and vertebrals

41
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T/F: Atherosclerotic plaque deposits in the Internal Carotid Artery (ICA) always produce heavy acoustic shadows due to internal calcifications.

False

42
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<p>What’s A</p>

What’s A

Middle Cerebral Artery

43
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<p>What’s B </p>

What’s B

Basilar Artery

44
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<p>What’s C </p>

What’s C

Anterior Communicating Artery

45
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What’s D

Posterior Cerebral Artery

46
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How may blood get to the Internal Carotid Artery (ICA) if the ipsilateral Common Carotid Artery (CCA) is occluded proximal to the carotid bifurcation?

flow reversal in the ECA

47
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The Parasympathetic Nervous system controls:

rest and digest response

48
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The Sympathetic Nervous system controls:

fight and flight response

49
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Another name given to the sympathetic response is:

autonomic response

50
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Which of these is the largest vein that drains the heart muscle?

coronary sinus

51
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What is the definition of angina pectoris?

symptoms such as chest discomfort of sudden onset

52
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Which of the following is a possible cause of inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium?

anemia

53
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Specialized nerve tissue that detect changes in blood pressure are known as:

baroreceptors

54
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Muscarinic receptors in cardiac muscle act in which manner?

slows the natural pacing rate of the heart

55
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Which of the following is referred to as chronotropy?

change in heart rate

56
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True or False:

Myocardial ischemia, if not reversed, can lead to myocardial infarction, which is death of the myocardial tissue affected by ischemia.

True

57
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Alpha1 & 2, Beta 1 & 2, and dopamine receptor sites are receptors in which autonomic nervous system?

sympathetic nervous system

58
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Given a situation in which a patient has been determined to have suffered a temporary or permanent blockage of a coronary artery, the diagnosis could include which of these terms?

acute coronary syndrome

59
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What is the function of afferent lymphatic vessels?

carry unfiltered lymph into the lymph nod

60
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What type of gland is the thyroid?

endocrine

61
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What type of vascularity is associated with a lymph rode that exhibits an "arborizing" blood vessel pattern?

hypervascular

62
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T/F: Sonography alone is not very sensitive in differentiating a malignant thyroid nodule from a benign mass

True

63
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What is a goiter?

enlarged thyroid

64
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When interrogated with spectral Doppler, what is the maximum velocity (cm/sec) of blood flow in a normal thyroid artery?

25

65
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As it used in the textbook to describe the diffuse hypervascularity of Grave's Disease, what does pathognomonic mean?

distinct characteristic of a disease

66
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What is the echogenicity of a lymph node with malignant lymphoma?

markedly low

67
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According to the lecture, about how many lymph nodes are in the cervical region of the neck?

300

68
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What is the normal range of right atrial pressure?

2--6 mm Hg

69
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What two factors determine cardiac output?

stroke volume, heart rate

70
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What term refers to the force exerted on the walls of the ventricles at the end of diastole?

preload

71
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What is the "atrial kick"?

contraction of atria from SA node impulse

72
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Scenario:

If a patient's stroke volume decreases, what must occur with the heart rate to maintain a constant cardiac output?

increase

73
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During which part of the cardiac cycle does blood return to the heart?

atrial diastole

74
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What term refers to the pressure or resistance against which the ventricles must pump to eject blood?

afterload

75
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True or False:

The stroke volume and ejection fraction are expressed the same way and mean the same thing.

False

76
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Blood pressure is defined as_____

force exerted by circulating blood on walls of arteries

77
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T/F: The cardiac output of the right ventricle is normally equal to that of the left ventricle on a minute-to-minute basis.

True

78
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Epinephrine and norepinephrine are two hormones that are secreted by the adrenal medulla and may cause what to happen?

increase the force of the heart's contractions

79
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What makes pacemaker cells unique compared to other cells?

capable of generating an electrical impulse without nerve stimulation

80
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Where does the 5 phases of the "fast response action potential" occur?

atrial & ventricular myocardial cells, Purkinje fibers

81
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What alternate name do myocardial cells have?

mechanical cells

82
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What are electrolytes, such as sodium, potassium, and calcium which carry a positive charge, known as?

Ions

83
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What occurs in cells during depolarization?

inside of cell becomes positive

84
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What state of a cell exists when at rest and the inside of the cell is more negative than the outside?

polarized

85
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What term is defined as the ability of cardiac muscle to respond to external stimulus?

excitability

86
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What do electrical charges of opposite polarity possess when they are separated?

potential energy

87
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True or False:

Depolarization is the same thing as contraction.

False

88
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Which of the following is true of the portal venous flow as measured by Doppler sonography?

the peak velocity increases postprandial

89
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Which of the following is true of the portal venous flow as measured by Doppler sonography?

the peak velocity increases postprandial

90
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"TIPSS" is an acronym for which of the following medical procedures?

a shunt between the IVC and the portal system

91
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T/F: There can never be more than three (3) hepatic veins.

False

92
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What vessel normally crosses posterior to the IVC?

right renal artery

93
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Which of the following leads to pathologic flow reversal in the IVC during systole?

Tricuspid valve insufficiency

94
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Which of the following refers to an occlusion of the distal abdominal aorta that involves the iliac bifurcation?

Leriche syndrome

95
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Portal hypertension may NOT result from which of the following?

anemia

96
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Flow velocities in the aorta are approximately_______cm/second slower than in peripheral arteries because of the large aortic caliber.

50 cm/second

97
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What is the normal range of diameters for the abdominal aorta?

20-25 mm

98
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Hepatic vein thrombosis is known as which of the following?

Budd-Chiari syndrome

99
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Where, in the heart's conduction system, is the speed of impulse conduction the fastest?

His-Purkinjesystem

100
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Any beat that originates from a source other than the SA node is called a(n) _ beat.

ectopic