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The wellness exam should not be performed in the same order for every patient which prevents overlooking a body system. True or False
False
List the three main components of the minimum database. (Do not use abbreviations)
Temperature, pulse, respiration
Which of the following is considered a normal respiratory rate for a dog?
24
As you are auscultating your feline patient's heart during the physical exam, you hear 50 beats in 15 seconds. Calculate what this patient's heart rate would be for one minute and state whether this heart rate is considered within normal limits.
200 bpm; within normal limits

What structure (as depicted by the black circle) is being evaluated in this photo?
Thyroid
Which of the following cardiac valves is assessed when auscultating the right ventral thorax?
Tricuspid
What organ can be palpated in the cranial ventral abdomen?
Liver
What abnormality in the nervous system is depicted in the following photo?
Proprioception


An 8 week old puppy is presenting for sneezing, coughing, as well as sudden vomiting and diarrhea. On physical exam, the patient is febrile, and you observe mucopurulent nasal discharge along with the abnormality shown in the following photo. What canine infectious disease do you suspect this patient has?
Canine distemper virus
A 12 week old unvaccinated puppy is currently hospitalized at your referral hospital. On physical exam, the patient has mucosal petechia, subcutaneous edema around his head, icterus, and hemorrhage around various deciduous teeth. What infectious canine disease do you suspect this patient has?
Canine adenovirus 1
List the viral pathogen infectious agents responsible for canine infectious tracheobronchitis
Canine Adenovirus 2 (CAV2) and Canine Parainfluenza Virus (CPIV)
A 10 week old puppy is presenting for vomiting, bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and depression. Blood work reveals leukopenia. What diagnostic do you recommend to the owner and what sample will you need to collect?
IDEXX SNAP parvo test- requires a fecal sample
What canine vaccines are considered to be core vaccines?
Rabies, Adenovirus 2, Distemper virus, Parvovirus
What two feline infectious diseases account for 80% of upper respiratory infections in cats?
Feline calicivirus and feline viral rhinotracheitis
An 8 week old kitten presents to you with conjunctivitis, nasal discharge, and the lesion as depicted in the following picture. What feline infectious disease do you suspect this patient has?
Feline viral rhinotracheitis
What canine and feline infectious diseases are zoonotic?
Toxoplasmosis, leptospirosis, chlamydophila felis
How often should cat owners clean the litter boxes and why?
Daily to prevent toxoplasmosis
_______ is defined as the decline in the desire, ability, and energy needed to empathize with or care for others and results in a loss of satisfaction in both an individual's professional and personal life.
Compassion fatigue

Identify the structure showed in the following picture. (Please use the anatomical name.)
Nictitating membrane “third eyelid”
The ______ lymph nodes can be found in the groin region along the inner thighs.
Inguinal
Where should the Rabies vaccine be administered in cats?
Right rear limb, as distal as possible
Where should the FeLV vaccine be administered in cats?
Left rear limb, as distal as possible
Where should the FVRCP vaccine be administered in cats?
Right forelimb
Which of the following is NOT considered a core vaccine for cats?
FeLV
Which of the following is true regarding documentation of physical exam findings? Select all that apply.
Information should be recorded illegibly
A standardized form should be used
It is not important to use proper medical terminology
Content should be kept professional
A standardized form should be used
Content should be kept professional
Why it is important to have a general idea of what a normal minimum database is.
It helps determine was is and isn’t considered an emergency
Which of the following canine heart rates is considered within normal limits?
80 (60-140)
Which of the following feline respiratory rates is considered within normal limits?
36
The ______ is an ocular structure that cannot be visualized without specialty equipment.
Optic nerve
The _____ artery is generally used to asses the peripheral arterial pulse.
Femoral
The _____ can be best examined via rectal palpation.
Prostate
The ______ lymph nodes can be found behind the stifle.
Popliteal
An animal receiving a musculoskeletal examination should first be observed while ______.
Walking
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities to skin lesions / alopecia / masses is tied with what body system?
Integumentary
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities to lameness / joint swelling / decreased ROM is tied with what body system?
Musculoskeletal
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities to vomiting / diarrhea / abdominal abnormality is tied with what body system?
Gastrointestinal
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities with ataxia / abnormal proprioception abnormality is tied with what body system?
Nervous
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities with heart murmur / abnormal rhythm / weak pulses abnormality is tied with what body system?
Cardiovascular
An animal presenting with significant abnormalities with abnormal lung sounds / coughing / increased respiratory effort abnormality is tied with what body system?
Respiratory
Survivors of _______ may have lifelong complications and may experience a syndrome known as "Old Dog Encephalopathy".
Canine distemper virus
Canine distemper virus may cause dogs to deal with what complication long term?
“Old Dog Encephalopathy”
Usage of the modified live canine adenovirus 1 vaccine can result in the condition known as ______. (You may use the common name for it.)
Blue eyes
Hyperkeratosis of the nose and footpads is the pathognomonic signs for what infectious canine disease?
Canine distemper virus
Subcutaneous edema and icterus are both clinical signs observed in canine patients with ______.
Canine infectious hepatitis
Which of the following canine infectious diseases is a cause of infectious tracheobronchitis, otherwise known as kennel cough?
Canine adenovirus 2
Describe the main form of pathogenesis for canine parvovirus.
Affects epithelial cells of small intestinal crypts
Canine parvovirus can be diagnosed by detecting the viral antigen present in the patient's _____.
Feces
Which of the following is not considered a core vaccine for canine patients but is often included in the canine combo vaccine?
Canine parainfluenza virus vaccine
Initial puppy vaccines should ideally be started at what age?
6-8 weeks
The rabies vaccine should ideally be administered no earlier than _____ weeks of age.
16
What bacterial pathogen is a causative agent of canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
What white blood cell is commonly low in patients with feline panleukopenia?
Neutrophils
What canine infectious disease results in a cough that is easily induced by gentle palpation of the larynx and trachea?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
The causative agent of Feline panleukopenia is a _______.
Parvovirus
_____ was the first canine influenza strain identified in the USA and occurred in 2004 in Florida greyhounds.
H3N8
Reactions are most common with what vaccine?
Leptospirosis

What feline infectious disease does this patient most likely have?
Feline calcivirus
Feline _____ virus is the causative agent of feline viral rhinotracheitis.
Herpes
Transplacental infection of what feline infectious disease results in cerebellar hypoplasia and retinal dysplasia?
Feline panleukopenia
The pathognomonic clinical sign for feline viral rhinotracheitis is ______.
Dendritic corneal ulcers
Acute _____ disease is the most common presentation of leptospirosis.
Renal
How is canine influenza diagnosed?
Antibodies in blood and serologic testing
Transmission of Leptospira species most commonly occurs through exposure to ______.
Urine
Leptospirosis is zoonotic to humans. True or False
True
Based on the following description, what possible outcome would this feline patient infected with Feline Leukemia Virus fall under?
"Viral replication was stopped by the immune system, and the virus was eliminated from the body. The antigen test was never positive."
Regressor
Based on the following description, what possible outcome would this feline patient infected with Feline Leukemia Virus fall under?
"The immune system was unable to stop viral replication. The virus continued circulating in the blood, and the antigen test remained positive."
Persistent viremia
Based on the following description, what possible outcome would this feline patient infected with Feline Leukemia Virus fall under?
"The virus was initially able to replicate and circulate in the blood, causing a positive antigen test. The immune system later controlled the infection, and the antigen test became negative."
Transient viremia
Based on the following description, what possible outcome would this feline patient infected with Feline Leukemia Virus fall under?
"The immune system stopped the virus from continuously circulating in the blood, but the virus was not completely eliminated. The virus remained hidden in the bone marrow, and the antigen test became negative."
Latent bone marrow infection
Feline Immunodeficiency Virus is a disease of ______ cats.
Fighting
Describe why not all cats that are infected with the feline infectious peritonitis virus develop clinical disease.
Clinical disease is a result from either the virus mutation or an abnormality is the cat's immune system.
What secondary neoplasm is most commonly observed in felines with feline leukemia virus?
Lymphosarcoma
Antibodies to feline immunodeficiency virus are formed ____ weeks after infection.
2
The effusive (wet) form of feline infectious peritonitis is the more common form. True or False
True
The ELISA test (IDEXX Snap Test) detects antibodies to Feline Leukemia Virus. True or False
False
The ELISA test (IDEXX Snap Test) detects Feline Leukemia Virus antigen. True or False
True
Which of the following is recommended to help control the spread of feline immunodeficiency virus?
Spay and neuter
Which of the following diagnostics can provide a definitive diagnosis for feline infectious peritonitis?
Biopsy
Felines infected with Feline Immunodeficiency Virus have a better prognosis than those infected with Feline Leukemia Virus. True or False
True
What is the causative agent of feline infectious peritonitis?
Coronavirus
Feline Leukemia Virus is a disease of ______ cats.
Social
In what patients should the modified live panleukopenia vaccine NOT be used?
Pregnant queens
A kitten presents with a mild fever and leukopenia. You suspect that the patient has feline panleukopenia and will most likely develop lifelong immunity. What presentation of this feline infectious disease does this describe?
Subclinical
A kitten suddenly dies without showing obvious clinical signs. What presentation of feline panleukopenia does this describe?
Peracute
A kitten presents with depression, fever, and diarrhea for 1–3 days and then rapidly recovers. What presentation of feline panleukopenia does this describe?
Subacute
Chlamydophila felis predominantly infects the _______ of the eye.
Conjunctiva
What vector is responsible for transmitting Bartonella henselae?
Flea
______ are the definitive host for Toxoplasmosis gondii?
Cats
Which of the following can serve as intermediate hosts for Toxoplasma gondii?
Humans and other warm-blooded animals
It takes a minimum of ______ hours for Toxoplasmosis gondii oocysts shed in the feces to become infective to humans.
24
What type of antibodies suggest that a feline patient has an active Toxoplasmosis gondii infection?
IgM
What type of antibodies suggest that a feline patient has been previously exposed to Toxoplasma gondii?
IgG
An ________ biopsy is recommended to diagnosis feline injection site sarcomas.
Incisional
Most feline injection site sarcomas are ________.
Fibrosarcomas
It is recommended to resect feline injection site sarcomas with _______ centimeter (cm) lateral margins.
3-5
Describe the purpose of the Vaccine-Associated Feline Sarcoma Task Force (VAFSTF)?
It allows tracking of sites where tumors develop, help determine what caused the tumor, and provides ease of tumor excision should a tumor develop
List one role of veterinary professionals when dealing with clients who are having their pet assessed for quality of life.
Educator
Facilitator
Supporter
Resource/referral guide
One item that is rated low on the quality of life scale assessment may indicate that the patient has a poor quality of life. True or False
True
_____ is the stage grief in which the client experiences complete and overwhelming sadness.
Depression
_____ is the stage of grief in which a client may refuse to believe or accept that their pet is dying.
Denial
_____ is the stage of grief in which the client recognizes and comes to terms with the reality of the loss.
Acceptance