Equine D&M Final Exam

Horse resp disease clinical signs

tachypnea, dyspnea, cough (with or without a cough), unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge, decreased performance, fever, and lymphadenopathy

This occurs when bacteria that is normally inhabits the upper respiratory tract and oral cavity is aspirated

Bacterial pneumonia

This occurs when the bacterial pneumonia infection spreads from the lung tissue to the pleural space

Pleuropneumonia

This refers to chronic airway inflammation caused by sensitivity to the environment irritants like dust, molds, and other inhaled allergens

Equine asthma

How do we diagnose equine asthma?

-rebreathing examinations and BAL are important diagnostic tools.

-Make sure to do a cytological examination to rule out infection versus inflammatory

Treatment for equine asthma

-Mixture of environmental changes and medications to control inflammation and bronchoconstriction.

-Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are often administered via nebulization or inhaler for direct airway administration

This Is a common highly contagious respiratory disease of horses caused by the bacterial pathogen Streptococcus equi equi.

Strangles

Strangles treatment

antibiotics, anti-inflammatories, and heat therapy to draw out abscesses

How do we diagnose strangles?

culture of nasal discharge or samples obtained by nasopharyngeal wash or guttural pouch flush

Guttural pouches

two large systemic dilatations of the Eustachian tubes that are located just above the pharynx and larynx

This Is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by equine herpesvirus type 1 and type 4. Clinical signs include fever, lethargy, and nasal discharge.

Equine Rhinopneumonitis

Equine Rhinopneumonitis diagnosis

PCR analysis of blood and nasal secretions

This is a contagious viral disease that produces limb swelling, conjunctivitis, abortion, and respiratory disease in horses.

Viral Arteritis

How do we diagnose viral arteritis?

serology

This is a persistent viral disease of horses that cause anemia, fever, and weight loss. It is diagnosed by the Coggins test.

Equine infectious anemia

This is known as equine granulocytic and is caused by the bacterium Anaplasma phagocytophilium. Clinical signs are fever, anemia, icterus, lethargy, stiffness, and limb edema.

Anaplasmosis

How do we treat Anaplasmosis?

consists of IV antimicrobials, such as oxytetracycline and steroids, if necessary, for edema

This is a tick born illness caused by the bacteria spirochete bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi. Clinical signs include low-grade fever, joint swelling, lameness, laminitis, muscle tenderness, skin rash, chronic weight loss, uveitis, and hypersensitivity to touch.

Lyme disease

How do we diagnose Lyme disease?

Western blot, ELISA, multiplex assay, and the C-6 ELISA SNAP test

How do we treat Lyme disease?

IV oxytetracycline or oral doxycycline for at least one month is typically required

This is a bloodborne disease caused by the parasite Babesia caballi or Theileria equi. Clinical signs include fever, anemia, jaundice, weight loss, ventral edema, increased respiration, possible enlarged spleen

Piroplasmosis

This is a common arrhythmia in horses, especially fit, athletic animals. It occurs as the result of altered conduction through the Av node, resulting in contracture of the atria without the ventricles.

Second degree AV block

This is the most common clinically relevant arrhythmia in horses. Clinical signs include exercise intolerance or poor performance.

A-Fib

How do we treat A-fib in horses?

• Quinidine through an NG tube or oral tablets

• Electrical conversion under anesthesia can be accomplished by placing electrodes into the heart with ultrasound guidance

Skin is the barrier against...

Chemicals

Heat

Cold

Microbial pathogens

UV light

What are the main functions of the skin?

-Prevents loss of water and electrolytes

-Regulates body temp

-Regulates blood pressure by peripheral vascular changes

Pastern dermatitis

Horse allergies

-Insect Hypersensitivity

- Food Allergy

- Contact Allergies

Dermatophilosis (Rain Scald/Rain Rot)

- Dermatophilis congolensis (a bacteria)

- Chronic moisture and skin damage predispose

Dermatophytosis (Ringworm)

-Various fungal species

- Contagious to many species

Bacterial folliculitis

Corynebacterium Infection (Pigeon Fever)

-Caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

- Generally forms external abscesses

- Rarely forms internal abscesses

Pythiosis

-Caused by Pythium insidiosum, a fungus-like organism that lives in standing water

- Very aggressive

- Hard to treat

Which disease is caused by fungus?

ringworm

What purpose does piloerection serve in horses?

traps air between hairs to keep horse warm

What is the most common skin tumor in horses?

sarcoids

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

-Eyes, genitalia, nose

- Pale skinned horses

Melonoma

-Gray horses

- Usually dark gray or black

- Perenium, parotid, commissure of lips, prepuce/penis

Hair sampling is useful for......

suspected Ringworm and Rainrot

What are we looking for with the adhesive tape prep?

pinworms

Topical tumor treatment

-5-Fluorouracil Ointment

-Useful for pre-cancerous Squamous Cell Carcinoma

-Kills rapidly dividing cells

Cisplatin Beads

-Implant in and around skin tumors

-more likely to cause renal tumors than carboplatin

Pyelonephritis

infection of the kidneys

Cystitis

infection of the bladder

Horse urine normally contains.......

calcium crystals

Horse urinary stones will/will not be dissolved with diet?

WILL NOT

Sabulous Cystitis

-Accumulation of crystals and mucus in bladder

-Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM), Cauda Equina Syndrome, Equine Herpes Myeloencephalitis (neurologic EHV-1)

What are the most common types of urogenital tumors?

Squamous cell carcinomas and Melanoma

What kind of plant toxicity will cause kidney disease in horses?

wilted Red maple

Pre-renal azotemia is caused by.....

dehydration

Renal azotemia is caused by....

injury to the kidneys

Post-renal azotemia is caused by.......

Obstruction of urine flow due to urinary tract calculi

Azotemia

Elevated BUN (>22 mg/dl) and/or Creatine (>2.0mg/dl)

Free catch urine collection method is used for what?

to evaluate urine for unsanctioned drugs in competition horses

Percutaneous ultrasound

-images kidneys

-Ultrasound probe: 3-5 MHz curvilinear probe

Kidney biopsy risks:

hemorrhage and infection

What does a kidney biopsy do?

Detects microstructural abnormalities

Endoscopy size in males:

2 meter scope

Endoscopy size in females:

1 meter scope

What is the composition of most urinary stones in horses?

Calcium carbonate

Upper body wounds

 Heal predominantly by contraction

 Do not get exuberant granulation tissue

 Heal quickly, even if large

 Epithelialization is minimal

Lower limb wounds

 Wound Expansion

 Limited Contraction

 Exuberant Granulation

 Prolonged Healing

 Extensive Epithelialization

Primary closure of wounds

Closure with suture or staples

Acute wounds

Rapid healing

Delayed Primary Closure

After "Golden Period" (>6 hours)

Before granulation tissue (4-5 days)

Time permits: Reduced inflammation, Decontamination, Debridement

Second Intention Healing

 Natural process

 Wound contraction and epithelialization

 Contraction more desirable than epithelialization

 Most appropriate for many equine wounds

What is Initial Wound Management used for?

to assess and control blood loss

Horse blood volume

8% of body weight

Aseptic prep of skin _________ wound

around

Lavage solutions

-0.1% Povidone iodine solution (1 ml stock/liter saline)

-0.05% Chlorhexidine solution (25 ml of 2%stock/liter saline)

What is the purpose of bell boots?

protects the coronary bands and heels

Which wounds heal predominantly by contraction, do not get exuberant granulation tissue ("proud flesh"), and heal quickly, even if large?

Upper body wounds

True or False: Larger wounds are always more significant than smaller wounds

False

Primary layer of wound bandaging

rolled gauze and elastic adhesive tape

Secondary layer of wound bandaging

-cotton roll and vet wrap

-reduces swelling

Emergency goals for extremity fractures

-Prevent damage to nerves and blood vessels of limb

- Keep the fractured bone from penetrating skin and becoming an open fracture

- Stabilize limb to relieve anxiety

- Minimize further damage to fractured bone ends and surrounding soft tissue

Vertebral fractures

-Immediate treatment is needed to reduce spinal Cord inflammation

-Diuretics (Furosamide)

- Anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS, DMSO)

- Analgesics

- Corticosteroids (peracute): Dexamethasone 0.2-0.3mg/kg

Cranium fractures are often accompanied by......

serious neurologic deficits

Fractures involving temperomandibular joint:

guarded to poor

In case of cranium fractures, what task is typically most urgent?

assessing and treating the neurologic injury

True or False: Adult horses with limb fractures should be transported with their bodies as free as possible and their heads tied.

FALSE

What is the normal rectal temperature for a horse at rest?

99-101.5 degrees F

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult horse at rest?

24-48 bpm

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult horse?

6-16 bpm

True or False: Bluish tented gums in horses are often referred to as cyanotic. These colored gums indicate that there is low oxygen content in the tissue.

True

True or False: Isoquinoline - pyrozines (Parziquantel) targets tapeworms only.

TRUE

When a lame horse is trotted on pavement, which foot will sound louder when it strikes the ground?

the foot on the sound limb

A horse is being evaluated for lameness on a straight line on a hard surface. The horse is sound (no lameness) at the walk. She has a consistent lameness in the right forelimb at the trot. What grade is this on the AAEP lameness scale?

Grade 3

TRUE or FALSE: Horses are hind gut fermenters that rely on the bacteria in the large intestine to digest cellulose.

TRUE

Horses need to have large amounts of excess tooth removed gradually over time to avoid killing the tooth. What is the maximum amount of tooth that should be removed at one time?

3-5 mm

True or False: Exploratory celiotomy rarely reveals the specific cause of colic.

FALSE, it always reveals the specific cause

What is the most common problem of the equine esophagus?

obstruction

Which of the following procedures does not require a sterile surgical-type prep, for at least 5 minutes?

nerve block

True or False: Horses are more sensitive (more likely to have toxic side effects) from local anesthetics than ruminants.

False

True or False: Acepromazine is a useful drug to reduce anxiety in horses undergoing lameness exam. It will not produce profound sedation.

TRUE

When prepping a site for a joint block, the skin should be scrubbed from:

middle then outward

True or False: Horses are considered long day breeders

TRUE

True or False: The three main sites for bacteria are the GI tract, respiratory tract, and the umbilicus

True

True or False: Premature foals are delivered before 320 days.

True

Horse vision

285° Monocular

65° Binocular

Depth perception depends on _____________vision

binocular