dtuxr6

1. For which of the following patients would giving antitussives not contraindicated.

A. 78-year old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

B. 54-year old male with an allergy to dextromethorphan.

C. 26-year old female who is pregnant.

D. 38-year old female with diabetes.

D. 38-year old female with diabetes.

2. A clinical instructor is explaining to her students that antihistamines should be used very cautiously in patients with a/an

A. History of arrhythmias

B. COPD or bronchitis

C. Asthma or seasonal rhinitis

D. Angioedema or low blood pressure

A. History of arrhythmias

3. A patient is not getting a response to the antihistamine that was prescribed for allergic rhinitis. Appropriate action might include

A. Switching to a decongestant

B. Stopping the drug and increasing fluids

C. Trying a different antihistamine

D. Switching to a corticosteroids

D. Switching to a corticosteroids

4. Asthma is a common cause for visits in the emergency department. An ER nurse during the AM shift has noticed that recent admission is highest in children. The main action of sympathomimetic bronchodilators is to

A. cause bronchial irritation.

B. relax the smooth muscles of the bronchi.

C. constrict the smooth muscles of the bronchi.

D. increase the response caused by oxygen in the aerosol.

B. relax the smooth muscles of the bronchi.

5. Monitoring the correct dosage of xanthine product is best accomplished by

A. determining if the frequency of prn medication use is increasing.

B. decreasing the dose if the patient begins vomiting.

C. monitoring the relief of signs and symptoms

D. obtaining the theophylline blood level.

D. obtaining the theophylline blood level.

6. Which of the following should be avoided during a test on theophylline levels?

A. Orange juice

B. Chocolates

C. Peanuts

D. Milk

B. Chocolates

7. A patient has wheezing and is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse would expect the physician to order which medication that will be effective in relieving bronchospasms?

A. Albuterol

B. Prednisone

C. Montelukast

D. Cromolyn sodium

A. Albuterol

8. A nursing student has a correct understanding of the therapeutic level of theophylline if she chooses

A. 10-15 ug/ml

B. 10-20 ug/ml

C. 20-25 ug/ml

D. 20-30 ug/ml

B. 10-20 ug/ml

9. A patient is complaining of itching, tearing, and swollen eyelids due to a conjunctival inflammation. Which of the following would be an appropriate drug for this?

A. Cromolyn drops

B. Clear eyes drops

C. Visine eye drops

D. Eye Mo Red drops

A. Cromolyn drops

10. After receiving Montelukast for asthma, the male client asks the nurse, "How long will it take for this drug to work?" How should the nurse respond?

A. In 30 minutes

B. In one hour

C. In 2 hours

D. In 4 hours

A. In 30 minutes

11. A patient has had asthma for years and takes several different medications for management. The treatment regimen has been changed to include corticosteroids. Which of the following statement shows a correct understanding by the nurse about corticosteroids?

A. "Corticosteroids is the drug of choice for status asthmaticus."

B. "Corticosteroids are wonderful anti-inflammatory drugs and can be discontinued anytime."

C. "Corticosteroids are used for long-term asthma control but not for acute asthma attack."

D. "Addition of corticosteroids means the asthma is out of control and needed to be treat aggressively."

C. "Corticosteroids are used for long-term asthma control but not for acute asthma attack."

12. You know that systemic corticosteroids are used primarily for the purpose of

A. enhancing the action of cromolyn sodium.

B. producing direct smooth muscle constriction.

C. decreasing the effect of beta-adrenergic drugs.

D. decreasing the inflammatory activity in the bronchioles.

D. decreasing the inflammatory activity in the bronchioles.

13. A 74-year old client has a history of hypertension, mild renal failure, and angina. The client is on a low-sodium, low-protein diet. The most recent BP is 150/90. The following are the organs damage when there is a persistent increase in the blood pressure.

A. Brain, Gl and heart

B. Heart, liver and kidneys

C. Lungs, brain, and kidneys

D. Kidneys, heart, and brain

D. Kidneys, heart, and brain

14. A nursing student show a correct understanding of the difference between cardiac cells from skeletal muscle cells if they verbalize that

A. it contains actin and myosin

B. it possess automaticity and conductivity

C. calcium must be present for muscle contraction to occur

D. they do not require oxygen to survive

B. it possess automaticity and conductivity

15. Pressure within the vascular system is determined by the following except

A. peripheral resistance

B. stroke volume

C. sodium load

D. heart rate

C. sodium load

16. You know that treatment of the hypertensive client should begin

A. as soon as the hypertension is detected.

B. after there is evidence of vascular disease.

C. if the diastolic pressure is over 120 mm Hg.

D. after the age of 50, regardless of associated disease.

A. as soon as the hypertension is detected.

17. The client is on two antihypertensive drugs. The nurse recognizes that the advantage of combination therapy is

A. there is less daily medication dosing.

B. the blood pressure will decrease faster.

C. there will be fewer side effects and greater client compliance.

D. combination therapy will treat the client's other medical conditions.

C. there will be fewer side effects and greater client compliance.

19. Your clinical instructor is explaining to you that ACE inhibitors are used for hypertension control because they will

A. release renin into the bloodstream.

B. allow the kidneys to save sodium and water.

C. inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

D. vasoconstrict the adrenal cortex to increase aldosterone secretion.

C. inhibit the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

18. You understand that the renin-angiotensin system is not associated with

A. blood flow through the kidneys.

B. production of surfactant in the lungs.

C. release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex.

D. intense vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation.

B. production of surfactant in the lungs.

20. Which of the following may be attributed as a side effect to captopril (Capoten)?

A. Pulmonary edema

B. Loss of appetite

C. Productive cough

D. Hyperkalemia

C. Productive cough

21. A nursing student shows correct understanding of slow channel calcium entry blocking agents if he chooses which of the following statements?

A. It increases permeability of the cardiac membrane to calcium.

B. It transfers calcium for direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.

C. It selectively increases the passage of extracellular calcium ions, which promotes diuresis.

D. It inhibits the passage of extracellular calcium ions through cardiac cell membrane, producing de- creased peripheral vascular resistance.

D. It inhibits the passage of extracellular calcium ions through cardiac cell membrane, producing de- creased peripheral vascular resistance.

22. The nurse is giving client education on the use of calcium channel blockers (CCBs). Which of the following is not a priority for the nurse when teaching clients about (CCBs)?

A. Check blood pressure and notify healthcare provider if blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg or less.

B. If taking a drug that causes photosentivity, wear protective clothing when outdoors in sunlight.

C. Immediately report chest pain, palpitations, or a "racing heart."

D. Report dizziness or lightheadedness.

B. If taking a drug that causes photosentivity, wear protective clothing when outdoors in sunlight.

23. These drugs block vasoconstrictor and aldosterone secreting angiotensin II.

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Beta blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Angiotensin receptor blockers

D. Angiotensin receptor blockers

24. Which of the following nursing intervention is appropriate in female clients taking angiotensin receptor blockers?

A. To inform OB-GYN doctor if taking the drug.

B. Monitor for occurrence of a productive cough

C. Let client monitor his/her weight daily.

D. Monitor for intake and output.

A. To inform OB-GYN doctor if taking the drug.

25. The beta blockers aside from being used as an antihypertensive are also used in which of the following conditions?

A. Raynaud's phenomenon

B. Coronary artery disease

C. dysrhythmias 

D. Glaucoma

C. dysrhythmias 

26. The nurse acknowledges that beta blockers are as effective as antianginals because they do what?

A. Increase oxygen to the systemic circulation.

B. Maintain heart rate and blood pressure.

C. Decrease heart rate and increase myocardial contractility.

D. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility.

D. Decrease heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility.

27. The physician prescribes propanolol HCL (Inderal) to a hypertensive client. What information will the nurse give to the patient about the drug?

A. Monitor BP every month

B. Smoke just 1 pack of cigarettes

C. Do not abruptly stop the intake of drug

D. Stop medication intake if migraine develops

C. Do not abruptly stop the intake of drug

28. A nurse is interviewing a client who is about to receive metoprolol. Upon the history taking, the client is also taking insulin. Which of the following statements made by the nurse will correctly explain the possible interaction of these medications?

A. “This medication will have no effect on the blood sugar level”

B. “This medication may cause low blood sugar level”

C. “This medication will maintain the blood sugar level on a normal range”

D. “This medication may cause hyperglycemia or increase blood sugar level”

B. “This medication may cause low blood sugar level”

29. A 45-year old female with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with worsening migraine headaches. Which of the following medications is appropriate to treat her hypertension and headaches simultaneously?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide

B. Methyldopa

C. Metoprolol

D. Lisinopril

C. Metoprolol

30. A client is given a diuretic as an adjunct to treatment of hypertension. The nurse is teaching the client about this type of treatment regimen. She explains that diuretics are used in hypertension to

A. promote fluid loss from the body

B. encourage reabsorption of sodium and chloride

C. promote weight loss in more obese hypertensive patients

D. flush toxic metabolites, which are causing hypertension, from the circulatory system

A. promote fluid loss from the body

31. You are aware that furosemide therapy is frequently associated with adverse reactions such as

A. hyperkalemia, severe postural hypotension, diabetes

B. hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, glucose tolerance

C. hypokalemia, paresthesia, and leg cramps.

D. depression, bizarre dreams

C. hypokalemia, paresthesia, and leg cramps.

32. The client is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following diet is recommended for the client?

A. High-potassium diet

B. Low-potassium diet

C. High protein diet

D. Low protein diet

B. Low-potassium diet

33. A male client is admitted after a car accident. Assessment findings after 12 hours showed signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse anticipates administering which drug?

A. furosemide (Lasix)

B. mannitol (Osmitrol)

C. lidocaine (Xylocaine)

D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

B. mannitol (Osmitrol)

34. A systemic drug that may be prescribed to produce diuresis and inhibit formation of aqueous humor

A. hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)

B. acetazolamide (Diamox)

C. amiloride (Midamor)

D. furosemide (Lasix)

B. acetazolamide (Diamox)

35. Which of the following clinical manifestations may indicate that a client taking potassium wasting diuretic is experiencing hypokalemia?

A. Diarrhea

B. Polydipsia

C. Hypertension

D. Paresthesias

D. Paresthesias

36. A common effect of taking diuretics is hypokalemia. Which drug will not cause this?

A. spironolactone

B. chlorothiazide

C. furosemide

D. metoprolol

A. spironolactone

37. Mr. Tan has been taking furosemide 180 mg daily in divided dosages there times a day. What does he take for each dose?

A. 100 mg per dose

B. 80 mg per dose

C. 60 mg per dose

D. 40 mg per dose

C. 60 mg per dose

38. The drug of choice to start for patients who need to add drug therapy to reduce their blood pressure.

A. amlodipine

B. furosemide

C. candesartan

D. hydrochlorothiazide

D. hydrochlorothiazide

39. A client is newly diagnosed with mild heart failure. The client has been started on digoxin (Lanoxin). The positive inotropic action of digoxin refers to the ability to increase the

A. heart rate

B. resistance

C. force of contractions

D. electrical conduction

C. force of contractions

40. A patient is asking the nurse about the action of digoxin. The nurse is correct in her

understanding of cardiotonic drugs in treating chronic heart failure if she explains that it helps in

A. slowing heart rate.

B. speeding up contractions.

C. increasing water loss to reduce edema.

D. reducing the effects of other medications

A. slowing heart rate.

41. What question should the nurse ask to know if the client is experiencing digitalis toxicity?

A. "Do you feel dizzy?"

B. "Do you have constipation?"

C. "Do you see halos or rainbows around lights?"

D. "Do you experience tightening of your ring?"

C. "Do you see halos or rainbows around lights?"

42. A nurse is about to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. She should

A. give the drug and notify the prescriber

B. withhold the drug and notify the prescriber

C. retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if pulse has not changed

D. retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min

D. retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60 beats/min

43. An infant is ordered a scheduled dose of digoxin. The infant's apical pulse is 78 bpm. The nurse should

A. administer the dose as ordered.

B. hold the dose and notify the physician.

C. skip this dose but administer the next scheduled dose.

D. hold the dose and reassess the apical pulse in 30 minutes.

B. hold the dose and notify the physician.

44. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). All of which are the side effects associated with the medication except

A. loss of appetite

B. blurred vision

C. drowsiness

D. diarrhea

C. drowsiness

45. Mr. Reyes is receiving a digitalis preparation. You are assessing his condition to determine

whether the drug therapy is working. You observe that his edema has decreased, his urinary output has increased, his weight has dropped, his pulmonary congestion has decreased, and his pulse rate is 80 beats/minute. You can infer that [

A. there is still evidence of renal impairment.

B. the underlying dysrhythmia is unchanged.

C. chronic heart failure is still present.

D. digitalis therapy has been helpful.

D. digitalis therapy has been helpful.

46. A nurse is administering vasodilators to a client admitted in the Medical Ward. Vasodilators promote blood flow to the extremities by

A. increasing the heart rate.

B. relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels.

C. decreasing the amount of blood carried to the heart.

D. reducing the pressure the heart has to pump against.

B. relaxing the smooth muscles of the blood vessels.

47. This type of vasodilator enhances the microcirculation of the hair follicles and is given to clients with alopecia.

A. Minoxidil

B. Clonidine

C. Hydralazine

D. Methyldopa

A. Minoxidil

48. What condition would alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers be used for that will also affect the blood pressure?

A. Urinary incontinence

B. Pheocromocytoma

C. Urinary frequency

D. Alopecia

B. Pheocromocytoma

49. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating hypertension during pregnancy?

A. propanolol

B. amlodipine

C. methyldopa 

D. candesartan

C. methyldopa 

50. A client with newly diagnosed heart failure after myocardial infarction comes to the out patient department to ask about his new medications. Which of the following statements made by the patient concerns the nurse?

A. "I get out of the bed slowly in the morning."

B. "I keep nitroglycerin sublingual with me at all times."

C. "I take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning with breakfast."

D. "I do not like to take my digoxin because it make me nauseous."

D. "I do not like to take my digoxin because it make me nauseous."