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from what species are most human rabies contracted?
bats
what are the 2 major clinical signs of rabies?
behavior changes and vocalization
how long can a patient with rabies be asymptomatic?
1-2 months
what are the two forms of rabies?
dumb and furious
the forms of rabies are only present in what disease stage?
terminal
what are the clinical signs of furious rabies?
animals become anxious and aggressive. progresses to seizures or paralysis.
what are the clinical signs of dumb rabies?
hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing
what is the test of choice for rabies diagnosis?
direct fluorescent antibody test
what are the two locations of the brain used for rabies testing?
brainstem and cerebellum
how should bites to exposed unvaccinated pets be managed?
euthanasia and testing OR immediate vaccination and 4 month (dogs and cats) or 6 month (ferrets) quarantine
how should bites to exposed and currently vaccinated pets be managed?
45 day observation and immediate revaccination
how should bites to exposed and expired/outdated vaccinated pets be managed?
45 day observation and immediate revaccination.
how should humans be treated if rabies exposure is suspected?
post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and vaccination at 0 and 3 days. if a pet bit a human, it must be quarantined for 10 days or euthanized and submitted for rabies testing.
describe type I diabetes
pancreatic beta cells do not produce enough insulin
describe type II diabetes
the body is resistant to insulin’s effects
what type of insulin is short-acting?
humulin-R or regular insulin
what is regular insulin used for?
DKA, more immediate control of blood glucose
what type of insulin is Humulin-N?
intermediate or longer acting insulin
what type of insulin is recommended for use in cats?
peakless insulin (ex: glargine (Lantus))
what is the nadir?
the lowest point that the blood glucose reaches after insulin before it starts to increase again
what are the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
vomiting, ataxia, weakness, tremoring, dazed mentation, seizures, or death
if an owner is unsure wether an insulin injection went in, what is the appropriate course of action.
insulin should never be re-dosed. the regular amount should be given at the next dose.
what triggers the release of catecholamines?
stress
what is the appropriate diurnal temperature range for reptiles?
85-95 F
what is the appropriate basking light maximum temperature?
100-105 F
what is the recommended humidity range for tropical reptile species?
80-90%
what is the recommended humidity range for desert reptile species?
30-50%
what functions is UVB lighting necessary for?
calcium absorption and vitamin D synthesis
what foods should be avoided in herbivorous lizard species and why?
parsley, spinach, and chives. oxalic acid may bind calcium and reduce calcium level.
what are the venipuncture sites in lizards?
ventral coccygeal (tail vein), jugular vein, ventral abdominal vein
what are the venipuncture sites for celonians?
jugular vein, subcarapacial venous sinus (just above head and underneath shell at midline), dorsal coccygeal vein
an additional handler should be present for every ____ feet of the snake’s body.
3-4
what are the clinical signs of metabolic bone disease in lizards?
weakness, lethargy, stunted growth, muscle fasciculations, abnormal gait or posture, fractures, soft mandible (rubber jaw)
what organism is associated with severe gastrointestinal disease in lizards?
Entamoeba invadens (protozoal)
what are the clinical signs of herpes virus in lizards?
wart-like growths on skin, associated with stomatitis, disease in the liver, lung, or spleen.
what are the clinical signs of entamoeba invadens infection in snakes?
hemorrhagic diarrhea, dehydration, muscle wasting, death
what is used to treat coccidian parasites in snakes?
sulfonamides
what can snake mites cause?
anemia, inclusion body disease
what are the clinical signs of inclusion body disease in snakes?
neurologic disease, weight loss, abnormal shedding, secondary infections
what are the clinical signs of paramyxovirus in snakes?
nasal discharge, pus and blood tinged discharge from the glottis, neurologic disease
what zoonotic organism is naturally harbored by snakes?
campylobacter spp.
what cleaning solution kills campylobacter spp.?
sodium hypochlorite
what vitamin deficiency is common in chelonians?
A
what are the clinical signs of hypovitaminosis A in chelonians?
degeneration of epithelial surfaces
what can cause gout in chelonians?
ingestion of excessive protein, dehydration, kidney disease
when is hepatic lipidosis a normal physiologic process in chelonians?
hibernation and egg formation
what are the clinical signs of pathologic hepatic lipidosis in chelonians?
obesity, lethargy, weight loss, infertility, abnormal feces, anorexia
what is associated with accelerated growth or early maturity of chelonians?
renal disease, skeletal deformities, high mortality
what zoonotic diseases are carried by chelonians?
salmonella spp., mycobacterium spp., campylobacter spp., chlamydia spp., yersinia spp., vibrio spp., aeromonas spp., and e. coli.
apical
direction toward the root
attrition
wearing of the teeth from mastication or teeth rubbing together
buccal
direction toward the cheek
calculus
calcified plaque which hardens on the tooth and may not be brushed off
cementum
hard connective tissue covering the tooth root and sometimes the crown
crown
portion of the tooth that sits above the gum line and is covered in enamel
dentin
the bulk of the tooth; hard connective tissue made mostly of calcium and collagen
enamel
the white hard outer layer of the crown made mostly of calcium
endontics
treatment involving the pulp cavity
gingiva
mucosa/gums surrounding the teeth
lingual
direction towards the tongue
occlusal
the chewing surface of the tooth, which meets the tooth surface on the opposite jaw
periodontal ligament
collagen fiber that attaches tooth to the bone and holds the tooth in place
periodontum
supportive tissues around the tooth, including bone of alveolus, periodontal ligament, cementum, and gingiva
plaque
a film which accumulates on the tooth made of food, bacteria, cells, and mucin
pulp
the soft part inside the tooth made of nerves, vessels, odontoblasts, connective tissues, and lymphatics
ranula
a salivary cyst under the tongue
recession
apical gingival movement away from the tooth crown
root
lower part of the tooth that is in the alveolus
stomatitis
inflammation of the soft tissues in the mouth
sulcus
pocket under the gingiva, normal is 0-3 mm, greater than this suggests periodontal disease
radicular
continuously erupting but not growing teeth
aradicular
continuously growing
what are the two types of hypsodont teeth
radicular and aradicular
dental formula for adult dogs
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P4/4 M 2/3) = 42
dental formula for adult cats
2 (I 3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M 1/1) = 30
dental formula for adult cows/sheep/goats
2 (I 0/3 C0/1 P 3/3 M3/3) = 32
dental formula for adult horses
2 (I 3/3 C 0-1/0-1 P 3-4/4 M 3/3) = 36-42
dental formula for adult pigs
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/3) = 44
dental formula for adult lagomorphs
2 (I 2/1 C 0/0 P 3/2 M 3/3) = 28
dental formula for adult rat/mouse
2 (I 1/1 C 0/0 P 0/0 M 3/3) = 16
curette
used for subgingival removal of calculus and root plaining. can also be used supragingivally; has a rounded back and tip
elevator
used for breaking down the periodontal ligament with pressure and leverage
luxator
used for breaking down the/cutting the periodontal ligament; not used for leverage
extraction forceps
used to extract (pull out) the tooth after the periodontal ligament has been broken down
probe
has a blunted tip; inserted into gingival sulcus to measure pocket depth and evaluate mobility
polishers that operate greater than what rpm may cause thermal damage
1000 rpm
scaler
used for supraginigval removal of calculus, not subgingival due to sharp tip
cerebrum
conscious thought and perception, largest part of the brain
cerebellum
motor control, coordinates movement
what makes up the diencephalon
thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary
hypothalamus
controls temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep, etc. helps to regulate neuroendocrine function and homeostasis of the body.
pituitary
endocrine gland which secretes ACTH, TSH, growth horomone, prolactin, LH, and FSH
brain stem
connects the brain to the spinal cord
what are the 3 parts of the brain stem?
medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
dura mater
outer layer of meninges
arachnoid
middle layer of meninges
pia mater
inner layer of meninges
how many spinal nerves are there?
31
what are the cell types of the nervous system?
glial cells and neuorns
what do glial cells do?
protect the nervous system?