vet tech prep power pages

0.0(0)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/233

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

234 Terms

1
New cards

from what species are most human rabies contracted?

bats

2
New cards

what are the 2 major clinical signs of rabies?

behavior changes and vocalization

3
New cards

how long can a patient with rabies be asymptomatic?

1-2 months

4
New cards

what are the two forms of rabies?

dumb and furious

5
New cards

the forms of rabies are only present in what disease stage?

terminal

6
New cards

what are the clinical signs of furious rabies?

animals become anxious and aggressive. progresses to seizures or paralysis.

7
New cards

what are the clinical signs of dumb rabies?

hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing

8
New cards

what is the test of choice for rabies diagnosis?

direct fluorescent antibody test

9
New cards

what are the two locations of the brain used for rabies testing?

brainstem and cerebellum

10
New cards

how should bites to exposed unvaccinated pets be managed?

euthanasia and testing OR immediate vaccination and 4 month (dogs and cats) or 6 month (ferrets) quarantine

11
New cards

how should bites to exposed and currently vaccinated pets be managed?

45 day observation and immediate revaccination

12
New cards

how should bites to exposed and expired/outdated vaccinated pets be managed?

45 day observation and immediate revaccination.

13
New cards

how should humans be treated if rabies exposure is suspected?

post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and vaccination at 0 and 3 days. if a pet bit a human, it must be quarantined for 10 days or euthanized and submitted for rabies testing.

14
New cards

describe type I diabetes

pancreatic beta cells do not produce enough insulin

15
New cards

describe type II diabetes

the body is resistant to insulin’s effects

16
New cards

what type of insulin is short-acting?

humulin-R or regular insulin

17
New cards

what is regular insulin used for?

DKA, more immediate control of blood glucose

18
New cards

what type of insulin is Humulin-N?

intermediate or longer acting insulin

19
New cards

what type of insulin is recommended for use in cats?

peakless insulin (ex: glargine (Lantus))

20
New cards

what is the nadir?

the lowest point that the blood glucose reaches after insulin before it starts to increase again

21
New cards

what are the symptoms of hypoglycemia?

vomiting, ataxia, weakness, tremoring, dazed mentation, seizures, or death

22
New cards

if an owner is unsure wether an insulin injection went in, what is the appropriate course of action.

insulin should never be re-dosed. the regular amount should be given at the next dose.

23
New cards

what triggers the release of catecholamines?

stress

24
New cards

what is the appropriate diurnal temperature range for reptiles?

85-95 F

25
New cards

what is the appropriate basking light maximum temperature?

100-105 F

26
New cards

what is the recommended humidity range for tropical reptile species?

80-90%

27
New cards

what is the recommended humidity range for desert reptile species?

30-50%

28
New cards

what functions is UVB lighting necessary for?

calcium absorption and vitamin D synthesis

29
New cards

what foods should be avoided in herbivorous lizard species and why?

parsley, spinach, and chives. oxalic acid may bind calcium and reduce calcium level.

30
New cards

what are the venipuncture sites in lizards?

ventral coccygeal (tail vein), jugular vein, ventral abdominal vein

31
New cards

what are the venipuncture sites for celonians?

jugular vein, subcarapacial venous sinus (just above head and underneath shell at midline), dorsal coccygeal vein

32
New cards

an additional handler should be present for every ____ feet of the snake’s body.

3-4

33
New cards

what are the clinical signs of metabolic bone disease in lizards?

weakness, lethargy, stunted growth, muscle fasciculations, abnormal gait or posture, fractures, soft mandible (rubber jaw)

34
New cards

what organism is associated with severe gastrointestinal disease in lizards?

Entamoeba invadens (protozoal)

35
New cards

what are the clinical signs of herpes virus in lizards?

wart-like growths on skin, associated with stomatitis, disease in the liver, lung, or spleen.

36
New cards

what are the clinical signs of entamoeba invadens infection in snakes?

hemorrhagic diarrhea, dehydration, muscle wasting, death

37
New cards

what is used to treat coccidian parasites in snakes?

sulfonamides

38
New cards

what can snake mites cause?

anemia, inclusion body disease

39
New cards

what are the clinical signs of inclusion body disease in snakes?

neurologic disease, weight loss, abnormal shedding, secondary infections

40
New cards

what are the clinical signs of paramyxovirus in snakes?

nasal discharge, pus and blood tinged discharge from the glottis, neurologic disease

41
New cards

what zoonotic organism is naturally harbored by snakes?

campylobacter spp.

42
New cards

what cleaning solution kills campylobacter spp.?

sodium hypochlorite

43
New cards

what vitamin deficiency is common in chelonians?

A

44
New cards

what are the clinical signs of hypovitaminosis A in chelonians?

degeneration of epithelial surfaces

45
New cards

what can cause gout in chelonians?

ingestion of excessive protein, dehydration, kidney disease

46
New cards

when is hepatic lipidosis a normal physiologic process in chelonians?

hibernation and egg formation

47
New cards

what are the clinical signs of pathologic hepatic lipidosis in chelonians?

obesity, lethargy, weight loss, infertility, abnormal feces, anorexia

48
New cards

what is associated with accelerated growth or early maturity of chelonians?

renal disease, skeletal deformities, high mortality

49
New cards

what zoonotic diseases are carried by chelonians?

salmonella spp., mycobacterium spp., campylobacter spp., chlamydia spp., yersinia spp., vibrio spp., aeromonas spp., and e. coli.

50
New cards

apical

direction toward the root

51
New cards

attrition

wearing of the teeth from mastication or teeth rubbing together

52
New cards

buccal

direction toward the cheek

53
New cards

calculus

calcified plaque which hardens on the tooth and may not be brushed off

54
New cards

cementum

hard connective tissue covering the tooth root and sometimes the crown

55
New cards

crown

portion of the tooth that sits above the gum line and is covered in enamel

56
New cards

dentin

the bulk of the tooth; hard connective tissue made mostly of calcium and collagen

57
New cards

enamel

the white hard outer layer of the crown made mostly of calcium

58
New cards

endontics

treatment involving the pulp cavity

59
New cards

gingiva

mucosa/gums surrounding the teeth

60
New cards

lingual

direction towards the tongue

61
New cards

occlusal

the chewing surface of the tooth, which meets the tooth surface on the opposite jaw

62
New cards

periodontal ligament

collagen fiber that attaches tooth to the bone and holds the tooth in place

63
New cards

periodontum

supportive tissues around the tooth, including bone of alveolus, periodontal ligament, cementum, and gingiva

64
New cards

plaque

a film which accumulates on the tooth made of food, bacteria, cells, and mucin

65
New cards

pulp

the soft part inside the tooth made of nerves, vessels, odontoblasts, connective tissues, and lymphatics

66
New cards

ranula

a salivary cyst under the tongue

67
New cards

recession

apical gingival movement away from the tooth crown

68
New cards

root

lower part of the tooth that is in the alveolus

69
New cards

stomatitis

inflammation of the soft tissues in the mouth

70
New cards

sulcus

pocket under the gingiva, normal is 0-3 mm, greater than this suggests periodontal disease

71
New cards

radicular

continuously erupting but not growing teeth

72
New cards

aradicular

continuously growing

73
New cards

what are the two types of hypsodont teeth

radicular and aradicular

74
New cards

dental formula for adult dogs

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P4/4 M 2/3) = 42

75
New cards

dental formula for adult cats

2 (I 3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M 1/1) = 30

76
New cards

dental formula for adult cows/sheep/goats

2 (I 0/3 C0/1 P 3/3 M3/3) = 32

77
New cards

dental formula for adult horses

2 (I 3/3 C 0-1/0-1 P 3-4/4 M 3/3) = 36-42

78
New cards

dental formula for adult pigs

2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/3) = 44

79
New cards

dental formula for adult lagomorphs

2 (I 2/1 C 0/0 P 3/2 M 3/3) = 28

80
New cards

dental formula for adult rat/mouse

2 (I 1/1 C 0/0 P 0/0 M 3/3) = 16

81
New cards

curette

used for subgingival removal of calculus and root plaining. can also be used supragingivally; has a rounded back and tip

82
New cards

elevator

used for breaking down the periodontal ligament with pressure and leverage

83
New cards

luxator

used for breaking down the/cutting the periodontal ligament; not used for leverage

84
New cards

extraction forceps

used to extract (pull out) the tooth after the periodontal ligament has been broken down

85
New cards

probe

has a blunted tip; inserted into gingival sulcus to measure pocket depth and evaluate mobility

86
New cards

polishers that operate greater than what rpm may cause thermal damage

1000 rpm

87
New cards

scaler

used for supraginigval removal of calculus, not subgingival due to sharp tip

88
New cards

cerebrum

conscious thought and perception, largest part of the brain

89
New cards

cerebellum

motor control, coordinates movement

90
New cards

what makes up the diencephalon

thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary

91
New cards

hypothalamus

controls temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep, etc. helps to regulate neuroendocrine function and homeostasis of the body.

92
New cards

pituitary

endocrine gland which secretes ACTH, TSH, growth horomone, prolactin, LH, and FSH

93
New cards

brain stem

connects the brain to the spinal cord

94
New cards

what are the 3 parts of the brain stem?

medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain

95
New cards

dura mater

outer layer of meninges

96
New cards

arachnoid

middle layer of meninges

97
New cards

pia mater

inner layer of meninges

98
New cards

how many spinal nerves are there?

31

99
New cards

what are the cell types of the nervous system?

glial cells and neuorns

100
New cards

what do glial cells do?

protect the nervous system?