B - PT Boards - Set 1 and 2

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Last updated 12:54 AM on 9/9/26
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137 Terms

1
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Interferential is contraindicated for ___

OSTEOMYELITIS

i. Infection of bone

2
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What is the mechanism used when you employ ultrasound to do micro massage?

MECHANICAL

i. Probe has electrical current attached to it

ii. Gentle kneading of cells using sound waves

iii. Thermal ultrasound (0.5 W/cm^2)

3
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Which of the following modalities has its greatest effect on C fibers?

TENS

i. C fibers & A delta fibers take nociceptive fibers from periphery to brain

ii. TENS used primarily for pain relief (biphasic wave form)

4
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Which modality utilizes a clover leaf shape

INTERFERENTIAL

i. Turn on vector scan

5
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Which of the following should precede the administration of ultraviolet for a person with acne

ESTABLISH MED (MINIMAL ERYTHEMAL DOSE)

i. Start getting red skin

6
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Which of the following modalities increases ATP?

COLD LASER

i. By stimulating Cytochrome C (part of mitochondria)

7
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When utilizing ultraviolet to get the maximum result, the head is placed 90 degrees to the treatment area. What is the name of this law?

COSINE

8
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Transverse friction massage is NOT indicated for _____________________.

MOBILIZATION OF OSSEOUS STRUCTURES

i. This is an adjustment

9
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Which of the following modalities is utilized to promote healing?

MICROCURRENT

i. Primarily tx - promote tissue healing

ii. MENS / LIDC (low intensity direct current)

iii. Generate positive / negative net charge ( > 1 sec)

10
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Which modality has a zero-net charge?

SINE W A VE

i. Used primarily for pain relief / muscle contractions

11
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Which area of the body is most pain sensitive?

PERIOSTEUM

i. Could irritate following US tx - head not moving

ii. Pain for several days (periosteal burn)iii. ~ Sunburn you can’t get to

iv. Aches & throbs

12
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Which fibers are blocked by a TENS unit?

A DELTA

i. Can also be C fibers

13
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How does heat affect the blood?

DECREASES VISCOSITY

i. “Thinner”

ii. Any type of heat

14
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Using interferential in a clover leaf pattern, what is important?

LARGE AREA

i. Vector Scan → treat larger area

15
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Which of the following modalities has an antibacterial effect?

ULTRAVIOLET

16
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The baby has right lateral flexion torticollis. What instruction should be given to the mother?

PLACE ON TOY ON THE RIGHT SIDE

i. We need baby to activate left SCM by setting toy on right

17
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The patient’s back is against the wall & both feet are flat on the floor with the knees flexed and the foot dorsiflexed. Which muscle is exercised from this position?

TIBIALIS ANTERIOR

i. Into dorsiflexion

18
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If the purpose is to increase endurance, the exercise is performed with _____

LOW WEIGHT ; HIGH REPS

19
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Which of the following will provide the most muscle energy?

STARCH

i. Fastest amount of energy

20
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Which laser is likely to burn?

3B + 4

21
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A front plank exercise is categorized as a / an exercise.

ANTERIOR CHAIN

22
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Transverse friction massage is NOT beneficial for ____________.

TO PREVENT A TROPHY

i. Russian Stim - burst modulated strength

23
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Cardiac output is defined as ____________.

HEART RA TE & STROKE VOLUME

24
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Which muscle should be strengthened to correct winging of the scapula?

SERRATUS ANTERIOR

i. Long Thoracic Nerve

ii. Protraction

25
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Which modality has two twin peaks?

HIGH VOLT

i. Monophasic

26
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If the patient has a right tight sternocleidomastoid muscle, the head laterally flexes to the ____________ & rotates to the ____________.

RIGHT ; LEFT

27
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Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of traction?

OSTEOSARCOMA

28
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Which of the following is the best for strength training?

5 SETS ; 5 REPS

29
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What is the recommended treatment for an acute ankle sprain?

COMPRESSION WRAP

i. RICE - rest, ice, compression, elevation

30
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Which of the following is NOT a closed chain exercise?

BENCH PRESS

i. Open - distal limb freely movable

31
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If the purpose is to increase strength, the exercise is performed with ____________.

HIGH WEIGHT ; LOW REPS

32
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If the person performs cardiopulmonary exercise on a regular basis, which of the following will occur?

INCREASED STROKE VOLUME

33
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What is the best exercise to increase proprioception?

WOBBLE BOARD

34
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Which muscles are utilized against gravity and easily overused?

POSTURAL MUSCLES

35
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Which of the following is utilized during endurance training?

SLOW TWITCH ; RED

36
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Which of the following conditions is best treated with moist heat?

DEGENERATIVE JOINT DISEASE

37
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Aerobic exercise is not advised for which condition?

PRE-ECLAMPSIA

38
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What is the physiological effects of microcurrent?

HEALING

i. LVDC & MENS

39
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Which of the following is the initial procedure used to treat an acute grade II ankle sprain?

HIGH VOLT

i. Partial / incomplete tear of ligament

40
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Which exercise is performed to strengthen a muscle to correct for muscle atrophy without using movement of the joint?

ISOMETRIC

i. Muscle will contract

ii. No shortening

iii. No joint movement

41
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The best way to train for endurance is ____________ using ____________ muscles.

SUBMAXIMAL ; LARGE

i. 50% muscle contraction

42
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Before muscle testing the middle deltoid, which muscle should be evaluated first?

SUPRASPINA TUS

i. SITS

1. S - 1st aBDuct 20% shoulder

2. I - external rotator ; depress humeral head

3. T - external rotator ; depress humeral head

4. S - internal rotator ; depress humeral head

43
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Which of the following modalities is the deepest?

INTERFERENTIAL

44
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Dynamic stretching involves which of the following:

MUSCLE

45
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Which type of exercise is recommended to avoid ankle sprains?

PROPRIOCEPTIVE

46
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Rehabilitation of upper cross syndrome is accomplished with which exercise?

SEA TED ROWS

i. Deep neck flexors

ii. Pectoralis muscle

iii. Rhomboids

iv. Upper trap, lev scap, & suboccipitals

47
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Which of the following exercises is open chain?

FOOT IN THE AIR USING A BAND

i. Extension

48
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Passive range of motion is used to evaluate ____________.

LIGAMENT

49
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Which muscle is the main external rotator of the shoulder?

INFRASPINATUS

i. & Teres minor

50
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Which muscle is responsible for the first 15 degrees of aBDuction of the shoulder?

SUPRASPINATUS

51
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Which modality is utilized only to reduce pain?

TENS

52
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If you are weightlifting & you want to stabilize the spine, which muscle should be braced?

TRANSVERSUS ABDOMINUS

53
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What is the treatment for plantar fasciitis?

STRETCH THE GASTROCNEMIUS & SOLEUS

i. Prone to tightness

54
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Which lift is recommended to stretch the hamstrings, gluteus medius & gastrocnemius?

FRONT FOOT LIFT

55
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If you have a tight muscle and you are stretching, what is the proper procedure?

CONTRACT - RELAX - STRETCH

i. PNF

56
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Which of the following is NOT an expected finding when using cryotherapy?

ITCHING

57
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Which of the following exercises describes a muscle that lengthens while tension is maintained?

ECCENTRIC

i. Isotonic - concentric & eccentric

58
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During exercise the ______ is utilized & replaced by ______.

GLYCOGEN ; LACTIC ACID

i. Cory Cycle

59
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The presence of which of the following impedes the absorption of ultraviolet rays?

DIRT

60
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Which of the following is NOT a part of muscle strengthening?

STRETCHING

61
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Which of the following muscles should be strengthened to correct foot pronation?

TIBIALIS POSTERIOR

62
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What is the best way in which to exercise the right gluteus medius muscle?

RIGHT SIDE UP RAISE THE LEG UP AND DOWN

63
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A bridge which is performed in the neutral position with no weight is used to address which muscle?

GLUTEUS MAXIMUS

64
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Which of the following muscles is facilitated in lower cross syndrome?

PSOAS

i. Erector spinae

ii. Weak abs

iii. Weak glutes & hamstring

iv. Anterior pelvic tilt

65
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What form of cryotherapy does NOT use conduction?

COLD BATHS

66
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Which of the following is the best exercise to create lumbar spine stability?

sit up with knees bent

67
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Vagal stimulation comes from _____ and results in _____.

SA node ; decreased resting heart rate

68
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Which of the following is NOT recommended in the early stage of adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)?

Cryotherapy (constricted muscles)

69
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The measurement of plyometrics is which of the following?

force x speed = power

70
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Which of the following decreases during resistance training and increases during aerobic exercise?

glycogen storage

71
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Which of the following forms of exercise provides both proprioceptive and joint mobilization?

closed chain

(motion at multiple joints and proprioceptive information coming in because the patient is weight bearing)

72
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A tight iliopsoas (hip flexor) muscle will inhibit which of the following muscles?

Glute Max (hip extensor)

73
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Following a football injury to the quad, the best way to lightly stretch it?

Thigh extension and knee flexion (standing quad stretch)

74
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During eccentric motion of a muscle which of the following occurs?

Origin and insertion move further apart

75
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Where do you place the pads for optimal results?

Over the muscle belly (most activation of the muscle group)

76
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The patient is standing and first clasps her hands and places them in front then raises the arms and places them overhead. Which muscle is being stretched?

Latissimus dorsi (adduct humerus)

77
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If the patient presents with tight upper traps, which of the following is utilized to relieve the trigger point?

Petrissage (deep kneading motion - used to break up adhesions and trigger points)

78
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Which of the following utilizes monophasic symmetrical alternating current with zero net charge?

Sine wave and alternating current

79
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The piezoelectric effect changes ___ to ___?

Mechanical to electrical

80
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______ are used in weight lifting with proper posture?

Max amount of reps in 1 minute

81
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Which of the following is a contraindication to cold packs?

Raynaud’s phenomenon

82
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Which of the following is utilized in aerobic exercise?

Slow twitch; white

83
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When utilizing interferential what is utilized to relieve acute pain?

Fast twitch; non pain

(stimulating proprioceptors; A-alpha/beta)

84
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When utilizing UV, MED rate would NOT be influenced by _____?

adipose tissue

85
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During aerobic exercise which of the followig is stored in the muscle for energy?

glycogen

86
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If the patient is confined to bed rest, what has deconditioned the patient?

decrease exercise tolerance

87
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Cervical traction is better performed supine than sitting because _____?

paraspinal muscles are more relaxed (and more separation of posterior anatomy)

88
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How is PNF utilized if the muscle is shortened, painful, and contracted?

contract relax antagonist contract

89
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Hi-Volt can be used with which of the following modalities?

Ultrasound (mechanical)

90
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Which of the following is the Improper way to rehab a patient with adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)?

cryotherapy

91
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When there is immobilization of the shoulder, what happens to the fascia?

constricts

92
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To correct excess pronation (eversion) of the foot, which of the following muscles should be strengthened?

posterior tibialis

(plantar flex and invert)

93
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Which of the following parts of the body is the first to recognize unequal surfaces?

ankle / foot

(then knee, hip, and SIJ)

94
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What is the synergistic muscle to the rectus abdominus (flex ab)?

iliopsoas

(flex torso)

95
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What is the best line of correction to repair patellar malalignment syndrome?

(strengthen vastus medialis ; MC dislocates laterally)

L to M

96
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Which of the following is utilized when performing transverse friction massage?

Lotion

97
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If the deltoid muscle tested normal, and the infraspinus (external rotator) is hypertonic (shortened), which of the following motions will be limited?

Internal rotation

(Supra, Infra, Teres Minor = External Rotators)

(Subscap = Internal Rotator)

98
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PROM is performed when you want to treat a _____

Ligament

(Muscle and Tendon = AROM)

99
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If the patient has facet syndrome (hyperlordotic), which of the following muscles should be strengthened?

Rectus abdominus

100
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To strengthen the erector spinae which of the following is utilized?

Extension