Epizoo exam part 1

division of cell cultures according to the way of cultivation

monolayers and suspentions (microcarriers culturing?)

OIE is

world organization for animal health

post-epizootic means

the lowest degree of epizootic disease/intensity

natural focus of infection is limited

geographically and seasonally

source of infection is

macroorganisms, in which etiological agent survives, multiplies and is excreted

basic components of natural focus of infection are

1. etiological agent,

2. donor,

3. vector,

4. recipient,

5. environment

tricomponental foci of infections are divided into

vector,

inter-hostal,

post-interhostal

pathogenous transmission according to its multiplication is divided into

propagative

cyclo-propagative

cyclo- metamorphic,

therapy is prohibited in

foot and mouth disease

young ruminants are born

agamma-globulinaemic

cyclozoonoses require

more than one vertebrate host

anthropozoonosis

primary occurs in animals and can be transmitted to humans

CAMP test is used for detection of

streptococcus agalactiae

which medium is used in cultivation of fungi

sabouraud agar

PCR is used for

detection of etiological agent nucleic acids

synthetic immunoglucans are

levamisole

iso-prino-sine

the positive result in hemagglutination inhibition test is

sedimentation of erythrocytes

for detection of antibodies we use

competitive ELISA

what are the main clinical signs of acute mastitis

redness,

swelling,

fever,

pain,

dysfunction

scrapie is detected by (gold standard)

western blot

clinical signs of avian leucosis are

enlarged bursa,

diffuse and nodular lymphoid tumors in organs

main clinical signs of strangles are

abscesses in the lymph nodes of the head and neck,

yellow colored nasal discharge,

contagious of upper respiratory tract

etiological agent of strangles

streptococcus equi

golden standard for the detection of rabies virus is

immunofluorescence

which diseases are caused by prions

creuzfeld jacobs disease,

scrapie,

chronic wasting disease,

bovine spongiform encephalopathy

q fever

is a zoonosis (infects ruminants and occasionally humans)

clinical manifestation of maedi visna

respiratory and neurological signs

tularemia is

caused by francisella tularensis, and characterized by natural focality

maedi visna is caused by

a retrovirus and affects sheep and occasionally goats

campylobacterosis

is a zoonosis

lyme disease is usually diagnosed by

serology

african swine fever is caused by

asfavirus

contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by

mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides

rabies virus is

neurotropic

clinical signs (most common) in feline immunodeficiency virus infection are

anemia (?),

immunosuppression and lymphoma signs

samples for the laboratory diagnosis of african swine fever are

liver, tonsils, lymph node and kidney

outcomes of feline leukemia virus infections are

progressive infection,

regressive infection and

abortive infection

source of paratuberculosis is

feces of infected animals

leptospira spp.

survives in wet conditions

most common localization of ringworm lesions

around eyes, head and neck

what is the causative agent of lockjaw

clostridium tetanii

what is the sample for the detection of foot and mouth disease

vesicle

what is the minimum level of antibodies that correlates with protection agains rabies infection

0.5 IU

mucosal disease is associated with

bovine viral diarrhea virus infection

BVDV

dumb form of rabies is characterized by

paralysis

lumpy skin disease is caused by

capri-poxvirus

african horse sickness is caused by

orbivirus, transmitted by culicoides spp.

what are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from the digestive tract of dogs

e.coli,

campylobacter spp.,

salmonella spp.,

yersinia enterocolitica

what are the most common bacterial agents of the digestive tract of cattle

e.coli,

clostridium spp.,

salmonella spp.,

mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

herpesviruses are characterized by

latency

natural foci are limited

seasonally and geographically

field diagnosis of mastitis

california mastitis test, determination of ph

what is the most common cause of trichophytosis in cattle

trichophyton verrucosum

eosinophilic inclusion bodies in rabies infected nerve cells are called

negri bodies

in maedi visna, most animals become infected

by drinking infected colostrum or milk

paratuberculosis is

a chronic disease caused by mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis, characterized by hypertrophic enteritis

laboratory diagnosis of feline leukemia virus infection

p27 antigen (rapid blood test)

campylobacteriosis

is a zoonosis

oral vaccination of boars is preformed to prevent

classical swine fever

what is the causative agent of fowl typhoid

salmonella gallinarum

diagnostic of enzootic bovine leukosis is based on

lymphosarcoma findings,

serology and PCR detection of the viral RNA and proviral DNA

which species are susceptible to foot and mouth disease

cattle, sheep, goat and swine

what are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from digestive tract of horses

e.coli,

clostridium spp.,

salmonella spp.,

bacteroides spp.

rhodococcus equi

equine infectious anemia

is caused by a retrovirus, mostly transmitted by biting insects (horse flies)

causative agent of rabies is a

lyssavirus

borreliosis is

tick borne disease

for the detection of canine parvovirus 2 in clinical practice we use

ELISA for detection of antibodies

what is the sample for the detection of the causative agent of paratuberculosis

feces

differential diagnosis of foot and mouth diseases

vesicular disease,

vesicular stomatitis,

vesicular exanthema(?)

the sample for diagnosis of prion disease

blood and brain

which field diagnostic method can be used for diagnosis of salmonella pullorum

rapid slide agglutination

leptospira spp. can be transmitted through

bite wounds, ingestion, intact skin

in dogs leptospirosis can be prevented by

vaccination

what are the most common viral pathogens in the digestive tract of cattle

bovine corona virus,

bvdv,

rotavirus type a

porcine enzootic pneumonia is caused by

mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

tularemia in cattle is characterized by

inapparent course and

abortions

rabies epidemiological cycles are

urban and sylvatic

most feline immunodeficiency virus infection are acquired by

bites

myxomatosis is caused by

lepori-poxvirus

trichophytosis (ringworm) mostly occurs in

autumn and winter(?)

what are the most common viral causes of dog diarrhea

canine parvovirus, canine coronavirus

for the detection of leptospiral antibodies we mostly use

immunofluorescence

west nile virus

is a zoonotic agent

what are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from the digestive tract of pigs

e.coli

campylobacter spp.,

salmonella spp.,

clostridium spp., y

yersinia pseudotuberculosis,

brachyspira hyodysenteriae (?)

who can enter biosafety level 3 laboratories

authorized staff only, and their stay is controlled and restricted to necessary time

list 3 methods alternative to use of live laboratory animals

in vitro testing, computer modeling, human volunteers, agars

which are the correct disadvantages of the chorioallantoic membrane (CAM) method

physiology of mammals can be different than of birds, some avian reagents are hard to obtain, vasculogenesis

what is CAM method

a technique used to study the development of embryos and to test the safety and efficacy of new drugs.

CAM is a membrane surrounding the developing embryo in birds, useful for research because it is easy to access and manipulate

what does confluence describe in the context of cell cultures

proliferation under the appropriate conditions until they occupy all of the available substrate

cytopathic effect is

destruction of the cells after virus inoculation

PCR methods are methods for

direct detection of pathogen

what are the main reagents in ELISA test

antigen, antibody, enzyme, substrate

explain the term "acquire specific active natural immunity"

immunity acquired after infection

explain the term "acquire specific passive natural immunity"

immunity acquired via colostrum, transplacental

explain the term "acquire specific passive artificial immunity"

immunity acquired through hyperimmune serum

what is epizootiological triad

agent, host, environment

stages of epizootic process are

inter-epizootic,

pre-epizootic,

ascending,

culmination,

descending,

post-epizootic

grades of epizootic process are

sporadic, enzootic, epizootic, panzootic

secondary source of infectious disease is

where the etiological agent survives and does not multiply

what are forms of infectious process according to its manifestations

apparent,

abortive,

inapparent,

latent