Histology – The Cell, Epithelium & Glands (Review)

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Flashcards cover key structures, functions, and pathologies related to cell biology, epithelial tissue, and glandular histology.

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46 Terms

1
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What two major compartments make up the protoplasm of a cell?

The cytoplasm and the nucleoplasm.

2
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Name the three main types of endocytic uptake across the plasmalemma.

Pinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and phagocytosis.

3
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What is the difference between constitutive and regulated exocytosis?

Constitutive exocytosis is continuous and does not require an external signal; regulated exocytosis relies on clathrin-coated storage vesicles that fuse with the membrane only after an extracellular signal.

4
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Which two physical factors directly influence membrane fluidity?

Temperature and the degree of unsaturation of membrane phospholipid fatty acyl tails.

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What are the two broad classes of membrane transport proteins?

Ion channel proteins and carrier proteins.

6
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Define uniport, symport, and antiport transport.

Uniport moves a single substance; symport moves two substances in the same direction; antiport moves two substances in opposite directions.

7
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Which small, bipartite organelles serve as the 'workbenches' for protein synthesis?

Ribosomes.

8
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In rough endoplasmic reticulum, what two docking molecules hold translating ribosomes at the membrane?

Ribophorins (ribosome receptors) and the docking protein for the signal recognition particle (SRP).

9
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State the main function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum in hepatocytes.

Detoxification of lipid-soluble drugs and toxins, and synthesis of cholesterol and lipid molecules.

10
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Which mitochondrial membrane contains the enzymes of the electron-transport chain?

The inner mitochondrial membrane, specifically in the cristae.

11
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What signal targets lysosomal enzymes for packaging in the trans-Golgi network?

A mannose-6-phosphate residue on the oligosaccharide side chain.

12
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Differentiate early endosomes from late endosomes by pH and location.

Early endosomes (pH ≈ 6.0) lie near the cell periphery; late endosomes (pH ≈ 5.5) lie deeper in the cytoplasm and mature into lysosomes.

13
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Which oxidative organelle contains catalase and is formed by fission from pre-existing organelles?

The peroxisome.

14
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What small, barrel-shaped organelles degrade ubiquitin-tagged cytosolic proteins?

26S proteasomes.

15
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Name the two motor MAPs that move cargo along microtubules and state their directions.

Kinesin (anterograde, outward) and dynein (retrograde, inward).

16
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Which intermediate filament protein is the diagnostic immunological marker for epithelial tumors?

Keratin.

17
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Where is ribosomal RNA (rRNA) transcribed and ribosomal subunits assembled?

In the nucleolus.

18
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List the four phases of the cell cycle in order.

G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, and M phase (mitosis).

19
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During which mitotic stage do sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles?

Anaphase.

20
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What genetic enzyme deficiency leads to Tay-Sachs disease?

Hexosaminidase deficiency (failure to degrade GM2 ganglioside in lysosomes).

21
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Which autoimmune disease targets hemidesmosomal proteins and causes subepidermal blistering?

Bullous pemphigoid.

22
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Name the three regions (layers) that form the light-microscopic ‘basement membrane’.

Lamina lucida, lamina densa (both together = basal lamina), and lamina reticularis.

23
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What class of transmembrane proteins forms the focal sealing strands of a zonula occludens?

Claudins (aided by occludins and JAMs).

24
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Which junctional complex component is composed of E-cadherin linked to actin filaments?

The zonula adherens.

25
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Describe the cytoskeletal attachment of a desmosome.

Intermediate filaments (keratin) form hairpin loops that insert into an intracellular plaque of plakoglobin, plakophilin, and desmoplakin.

26
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What is the basic structural unit of a gap junction connecting two cells?

A pair of aligned connexons, each made of six connexins forming a 2-nm channel.

27
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List three apical surface specializations that increase or aid surface functions in epithelia.

Microvilli, stereocilia, and cilia.

28
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Which epithelial type lines blood vessels and heart chambers?

Simple squamous epithelium called endothelium.

29
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What distinguishing feature identifies pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

All cells contact the basal lamina but only some reach the free surface, giving a stratified appearance.

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Where in the body would you find stratified squamous keratinized epithelium?

On the epidermis of skin (e.g., palms and soles).

31
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Which epithelium contains dome-shaped surface cells that flatten during bladder distension?

Transitional epithelium (urothelium).

32
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Define a serous acinus by secretion and cell morphology.

It secretes a watery, enzyme-rich fluid; cells are pyramidal with round nuclei and basophilic cytoplasm containing zymogen granules.

33
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What secretion mode characterizes sebaceous glands and what happens to the secreting cells?

Holocrine secretion; the entire cell dies and becomes the oily product (sebum).

34
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Name the three classical modes of product release in exocrine glands.

Merocrine (eccrine), apocrine, and holocrine.

35
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Which histological feature distinguishes mucous acini from serous acini in mixed glands?

Mucous acini have foamy cytoplasm with flattened basal nuclei; serous cells form dark-staining crescent caps called serous demilunes.

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What structural and functional protein is attacked in pemphigus vulgaris?

Desmoglein (a cadherin) of desmosomes, leading to loss of cell adhesion in stratified squamous epithelium.

37
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How does cholera toxin produce life-threatening diarrhea at the epithelial level?

It disrupts tight-junction proteins (ZO-1, ZO-2), allowing massive paracellular efflux of water and electrolytes.

38
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Give one example of metaplasia involving respiratory epithelium.

Chronic smoking can convert pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium of bronchi to stratified squamous epithelium.

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Which ciliary component provides ATPase activity for motility?

Dynein arms on the A-tubules of each microtubule doublet.

40
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What is the name and composition of the actin-rich layer into which intestinal microvilli insert?

The terminal web, composed of actin filaments, spectrin, tropomyosin, and myosin II.

41
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Which epithelial cell type secretes histamine and heparin from its cytoplasmic granules?

The mast cell (a connective-tissue resident, often viewed with epithelia).

42
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Explain the 'signal hypothesis' in protein targeting.

mRNAs coding for non-cytosolic proteins contain a signal codon that is translated into a signal peptide; SRP binds this peptide, pausing translation until the ribosome docks on RER for co-translational import.

43
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What class of collagen forms anchoring fibrils between lamina densa and lamina reticularis?

Type VII collagen.

44
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Identify two diseases caused by peroxisomal defects.

Zellweger syndrome and adrenoleukodystrophy (not detailed here but both peroxisomal).

45
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Which intermediate filament protein is abundant in astrocytes and useful as a tumor marker?

Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP).

46
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What is the functional significance of stereocilia in the epididymis?

Exact function is unclear, but they probably aid in absorption and maturation of sperm.