Learn: C6-C10 | Quizlet

1. Marketing communications are the means by which firms attempt to ............ consumers about the brands they sell. | A. Inform, persuade, and remind | B. Force, trick, and compel | C. Manufacture, distribute, and price | D. Ignore, avoid, and reject

A. Inform, persuade, and remind

2. According to the Information Processing Model of Communications, for a person to be persuaded by any form of communication, which of the following steps must occur? (Check all that apply) | A. Exposure | B. Attention | C. Comprehension | D. Yielding

A. Exposure; B. Attention; C. Comprehension; D. Yielding

3. In the Information Processing Model, "Yielding" refers to: | A. Seeing the communication | B. Understanding the intended message | C. Responding favorably to the message | D. Acting on the message (buying)

C. Responding favorably to the message

4. Any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an identified sponsor is defined as: | A. Public relations | B. Personal selling | C. Sales promotion | D. Advertising

D. Advertising

5. Which advertising medium is generally considered the most powerful because it allows for sight, sound, and motion? | A. Radio | B. Print (Magazines/Newspapers) | C. Television | D. Billboards

C. Television

6. A major disadvantage of Television advertising is: | A. It lacks visual appeal | B. The high cost of production and placement | C. It cannot reach a mass audience | D. It is highly targeted to specific niches

B. The high cost of production and placement

7. Billboards, posters, and transit ads are examples of ............ advertising. | A. Direct response | B. Print | C. Place (Out-of-home) | D. Broadcast

C. Place (Out-of-home)

8. Short-term incentives to encourage trial or usage of a product or service are called: | A. Advertising | B. Public relations | C. Sales promotions | D. Event marketing

C. Sales promotions

9. Consumer promotions are targeted at end-users. Which of the following is NOT a consumer promotion? | A. Coupons | B. Samples | C. Slotting allowances | D. Rebates

C. Slotting allowances

10. Trade promotions are targeted at channel members (retailers/wholesalers). Which of the following is a trade promotion? (Check all that apply) | A. Trade allowances | B. Point-of-purchase displays | C. Training programs | D. Sweepstakes for consumers

A. Trade allowances; B. Point-of-purchase displays; C. Training programs

11. Public sponsorship of events or activities related to sports, art, entertainment, or social causes is called: | A. Event marketing | B. Direct marketing | C. Personal selling | D. Print advertising

A. Event marketing

12. Public relations and publicity focus on generating: | A. Paid advertising space | B. Favorable word-of-mouth and media coverage without direct payment | C. Immediate sales spikes through discounts | D. Better packaging designs

B. Favorable word-of-mouth and media coverage without direct payment

13. To evaluate the effectiveness of an Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC) program, marketers use the "6 Cs". Which of the following is ONE of the 6 Cs? | A. Cost | B. Comprehension | C. Coverage | D. Channel

A. Cost; C. Coverage

14. In the 6 Cs of IMC, "Coverage" refers to: | A. The inherent ability of a marketing communication to create the desired response | B. The proportion of the target audience reached by each communication option | C. The extent to which different associations are emphasized across communication options | D. The extent to which a marketing communication works for different groups of consumers

B. The proportion of the target audience reached by each communication option

15. In the 6 Cs of IMC, "Complementarity" refers to: | A. The proportion of the audience reached | B. The extent to which different associations and linkages are emphasized across communication options | C. The cost-effectiveness of the campaign | D. The ability to reach consumers via mobile

B. The extent to which different associations and linkages are emphasized across communication options

16. Which of the following is an advantage of Radio advertising? | A. Sight and motion capabilities | B. High geographic and demographic selectivity | C. Long lifespan of the ad | D. Zero clutter

B. High geographic and demographic selectivity

17. A disadvantage of Sales Promotions is that they can: | A. Decrease brand equity if used too frequently (focusing entirely on price) | B. Build long-term brand image automatically | C. Eliminate the need for advertising | D. Increase the inherent quality of the product

A. Decrease brand equity if used too frequently (focusing entirely on price)

18. Direct response advertising uses mail, telephone, internet, and other contact tools to communicate with or solicit a response from specific customers. | A. True | B. False

A. True

19. Integrating marketing communications means mixing and matching different communication options to build brand equity. | A. True | B. False

A. True

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 Cs of IMC? | A. Contribution | B. Commonality | C. Conformability | D. Customization

D. Customization

21. In the digital era, the balance of power has shifted from marketers to ............ | A. Retailers | B. Consumers | C. Wholesalers | D. Manufacturers

B. Consumers

22. Digital media channels are often categorized into three types: Paid, Owned, and ............ media. | A. Earned | B. Borrowed | C. Stolen | D. Leased

A. Earned

23. A company's official website and its official social media pages are examples of: | A. Paid media | B. Earned media | C. Owned media | D. Traditional media

C. Owned media

24. When customers review a product on a blog or mention a brand favorably on Twitter without being paid by the company, this is considered: | A. Paid media | B. Owned media | C. Earned media | D. Print media

C. Earned media

25. SEO stands for: | A. Social Engagement Optimization | B. Search Engine Optimization | C. System Efficiency Output | D. Service Evaluation Online

B. Search Engine Optimization

26. The goal of SEO is to improve a brand's ranking in: | A. Paid search ads | B. Organic (unpaid) search engine results | C. Television commercials | D. Billboard placements

B. Organic (unpaid) search engine results

27. Social media marketing offers Several advantages. Which of the following is an advantage? (Check all that apply) | A. It allows brands to establish a public voice and presence | B. It encourages community building | C. It facilitates two-way communication and engagement | D. It guarantees 100% control over what consumers say about the brand

A. It allows brands to establish a public voice and presence; B. It encourages community building; C. It facilitates two-way communication and engagement

28. ............ marketing involves the creation and sharing of online material (such as videos, blogs, and social media posts) that does not explicitly promote a brand but is intended to stimulate interest in its products or services. | A. Content | B. Outbound | C. Traditional | D. Tele-

A. Content

29. Individuals who have a dedicated social following and are viewed as experts within their niche are called: | A. Traditional marketers | B. Influencers | C. Wholesalers | D. Gatekeepers

B. Influencers

30. Compared to macro-influencers (celebrities), micro-influencers often have: | A. Millions of followers but low engagement rates | B. Fewer followers but higher engagement and trust within a specific niche | C. No social media accounts | D. Higher costs for a single post

B. Fewer followers but higher engagement and trust within a specific niche

31. The strategy of delivering promotional messages to smartphone users based on their specific geographic location is known as: | A. Geotargeting (or Geofencing) | B. Content marketing | C. SEO | D. Macro-influencing

A. Geotargeting (or Geofencing)

32. An ............ strategy provides a seamless and integrated shopping experience across all channels, whether the customer is shopping online from a mobile device, a laptop, or in a brick-and-mortar store. | A. Multichannel | B. Omnichannel | C. Single-channel | D. Offline

B. Omnichannel

33. When a consumer visits a physical store to examine a product before buying it online at a lower price, this behavior is called: | A. Webrooming | B. Showrooming | C. Phishing | D. Spamming

B. Showrooming

34. When a consumer researches a product online but makes the final purchase in a physical store, this behavior is called: | A. Showrooming | B. Webrooming | C. Dropshipping | D. Cybersquatting

B. Webrooming

35. Digital marketing allows for high levels of ............, where messages and offers are tailored to individual users based on their data and browsing history. | A. Standardization | B. Personalization | C. Mass production | D. Generalization

B. Personalization

36. Which of the following are potential risks of social media for a brand? (Check all that apply) | A. Negative viral feedback or complaints | B. Loss of complete control over the brand narrative | C. High engagement rates | D. Cost efficiency

A. Negative viral feedback or complaints; B. Loss of complete control over the brand narrative

37. Which digital tool is primarily used for professional networking and B2B marketing? | A. TikTok | B. Snapchat | C. LinkedIn | D. Instagram

C. LinkedIn

38. Paid media includes which of the following? (Check all that's not true) | A. Search advertising (Google Ads) | B. Display advertising (Banners) | C. Word-of-mouth recommendations from friends | D. Social media sponsored posts

C. Word-of-mouth recommendations from friends

39. Brand engagement online is crucial because it moves the consumer from being a passive receiver of messages to an active participant. | A. True | B. False

A. True

40. The rapid adoption of smartphones has made ............ marketing an essential component of digital brand building. | A. Mobile | B. Print | C. Radio | D. Television

A. Mobile

41. Leveraging the secondary association may: | A. Creates new brand associations | B. Effects on existing brand knowledge | C. Risks the existing brand image | D. All are true

D. All are true

42. Which kind of strategy does Samsung Galaxy C8 mobile phone apply: | A. Create a new brand | B. Adopt or modify an existing brand | C. Combine an existing and a new brand | D. Other

C. Combine an existing and a new brand

43. Ikea (a furniture Brand) is strongly linked to: | A. A City | B. A Company | C. A Country | D. Not any of the above

C. A Country

44. If consumers have .... awareness or knowledge of the secondary entity, then obviously, there is nothing they can transfer from it. | A. A little | B. No | C. A lot of | D. Strong

B. No

45. A country of geographic location from which a product originates may: | A. Become linked to the brand | B. Generate secondary associations | C. Create a strong point-of-difference for the brand | D. All are true

D. All are true

46. Consumers choose brands originating in different countries based on: (check all that apply) | A. Their beliefs about the quality of certain types of products from certain countries | B. The image that these brands or products communicate | C. The reputation of the brands

A. Their beliefs about the quality of certain types of products from certain countries; B. The image that these brands or products communicate; C. The reputation of the brands

47. Other geographic associations besides country of origin are possible such as: (check all that apply) | A. States | B. Regions | C. Cities | D. People

A. States; B. Regions; C. Cities

48. Which is not true: | A. Existing brands can be related to a corporate or family brand | B. A corporate or family brand can be a source of brand equity | C. Leveraging a corporate brand may or may not be useful | D. A corporate or family brand is never linked to a child brand

D. A corporate or family brand is never linked to a child brand

49. Three main branding options exist for a new product are: | A. Create a new brand | B. Adopt or modify an existing brand | C. Combine an existing and a new brand | D. All are true

D. All are true

50. Channels of distribution can directly affect the ...... of the brands they sell. | A. Quality | B. Performance | C. Equity | D. Attributes

C. Equity

51. Retailers have their own brand images in consumers' minds due to the following associations: | A. Product assortment | B. Pricing and credit policy | C. Quality of service | D. All are true

D. All are true

52. Advantages of co-branding are: (Check all that apply) | A. Borrow needed expertise | B. Leverage equity you don't have | C. Reduce cost of product introduction | D. Risk of brand equity dilution

A. Borrow needed expertise; B. Leverage equity you don't have; C. Reduce cost of product introduction

53. Disadvantages of co-branding are: (Check all that apply) | A. Loss of control | B. Expand brand meaning into related categories | C. Negative feedback effects | D. Lack of brand focus and clarity

A. Loss of control; C. Negative feedback effects; D. Lack of brand focus and clarity

54. Brand alliances, such as co-branding, require marketers to ask themselves questions such as: (Check all that apply) | A. What capabilities do we not have? | B. What resource constraints do we face (people, time, money)? | C. What growth goals or revenue needs do we have? | D. None of the above questions

A. What capabilities do we not have?; B. What resource constraints do we face (people, time, money)?; C. What growth goals or revenue needs do we have?

55. In assessing a joint branding opportunity, marketers will ask themselves: (Check all that apply) | A. Is it a profitable business venture? | B. How does it help to maintain or strengthen brand equity? | C. Is there any possible risk of dilution of brand equity? | D. Does it offer any extrinsic advantages such as rewarding by a third party?

A. Is it a profitable business venture?; B. How does it help to maintain or strengthen brand equity?; C. Is there any possible risk of dilution of brand equity?; D. Does it offer any extrinsic advantages such as rewarding by a third party?

56. Check all that's not true: | A. With ingredient branding, a firm cannot generate greater sales at a higher margin | B. Ingredient branding creates brand equity for materials, components, or parts that are contained within other branded products | C. Branded ingredients are often a signal of quality | D. Uniformity and predictability of ingredient brands can reduce risks and reassure consumers

A. With ingredient branding, a firm cannot generate greater sales at a higher margin

57. Firms may license corporate trademarks to: (Check all that apply) | A. Generate extra revenue and profits | B. Protect their trademarks | C. Increase their brand exposure | D. Enhance their image

A. Generate extra revenue and profits; B. Protect their trademarks; C. Increase their brand exposure; D. Enhance their image

58. A famous person can: (check all that's not true) | A. Draw attention to a brand | B. Shape brand perceptions, by virtue of consumers' perceptions of the famous person | C. Increase the product performance

C. Increase the product performance

59. Sporting Cultural or Other Events may: (Check all that's not true) | A. Become associated to the brand and improving brand awareness | B. Add new associations | C. Guarantee the quality of the products under the brand | D. Improve the strength, favorability, and uniqueness of existing associations

C. Guarantee the quality of the products under the brand

60. Marketers can create secondary associations by .......the brand to various third-party sources | A. Introducing | B. Linking | C. Adding

B. Linking

61. A brand audit is a comprehensive ..... of a brand to discover its sources of brand equity. | A. Test | B. Examination | C. Exploration

B. Examination

62. A brand audit consists of ...... steps: | A. 2.0 | B. 3.0 | C. 4.0 | D. 5.0

A. 2.0

63. A marketing audit examines a company's marketing environment, objectives, ........ and activities. | A. Techniques | B. Strategies | C. Tools | D. Application

B. Strategies

64. The purpose of the brand inventory is to provide a current, comprehensive ......of how all products and services are marketed and branded. | A. Profile | B. Portfolio | C. Story | D. Landscape

A. Profile

65. Profiling each product or service requires marketers to catalogue: (check all that's not true) | A. Visual and written form for each product or service sold. | B. Only the brand elements attached to the products or services. | C. The inherent product attributes or characteristics of the brand. | D. Pricing, communications, and distribution policies.

B. Only the brand elements attached to the products or services.

66. A digital inventory of brand assets may provide useful insights of: (check all that apply) | A. Outdated brand accounts that have fallen into disuse | B. Overlapping brand assets that can be merged or deleted | C. Existing brand accounts with information that is either inaccurate or not up-to-date | D. Digital and social media channels where the brand does not have a presence

A. Outdated brand accounts that have fallen into disuse; B. Overlapping brand assets that can be merged or deleted; C. Existing brand accounts with information that is either inaccurate or not up-to-date; D. Digital and social media channels where the brand does not have a presence

67. Brand Exploratory is the second step of the brand audit, which provides detailed information about what consumers actually ..... of a brand: (check all that apply) | A. Think | B. Perceive | C. Feel | D. Judge

A. Think; B. Perceive; C. Feel; D. Judge

68. Three criteria to judge qualitative research techniques (according to Levy): (Check what is not true) | A. Direction | B. Depth | C. Duration | D. Diversity

C. Duration

69. A digital marketing review offers the following benefits: (check all that apply) | A. It can highlight whether a brand's digital efforts are received in online channels, relative to competitors. | B. It can help unlock important customer-level insights as well as industry trends. | C. It can provide useful input to brand strategy development and the crafting or refinement of the brand positioning. | D. It can act as a health check of a brand's digital marketing and social media strategy.

A. It can highlight whether a brand's digital efforts are received in online channels, relative to competitors.; B. It can help unlock important customer-level insights as well as industry trends.; C. It can provide useful input to brand strategy development and the crafting or refinement of the brand positioning.; D. It can act as a health check of a brand's digital marketing and social media strategy.

70. Ideal brand positioning aims to achieve the................. between: What customers currently believe about the brand, What customers will value in the brand, What the firm is currently saying about the brand, Where the firm would like to take the brand. | A. Congruence | B. Relation | C. Contrast | D. Connection

A. Congruence

71. Tracking studies play an important role by providing ................ baseline information to facilitate day-to-day decision-making. | A. Good | B. Important | C. Accurate | D. Consistent

D. Consistent

72. Brand tracking studies are to collect information from consumers: (Check all that apply) | A. On a routine basis | B. Usually qualitative | C. Usually quantitative

A. On a routine basis; C. Usually quantitative

73. The brand equity management system consists of: | A. Brand Charter or Bible | B. Brand Equity Report | C. Brand Equity Responsibilities | D. All are true

D. All are true

74. Brand tracking studies, as well as brand audits, can provide a huge reservoir of information about how best to build and .............. brand equity | A. Check | B. Measure | C. Develop | D. Grow

B. Measure

75. The brand charter should define and clarify points-of-parity, points-of-difference, and the .................... | A. Brand slogan | B. Brand mantra | C. Brand Logo | D. Brand tagline

B. Brand mantra

76. Brand equity responsibilities clearly define organization ................ with respect to the brand | A. Responsibilities | B. Responsibilities and processes | C. Processes | D. Intention

B. Responsibilities and processes

77. Brand equity responsibilities include: | A. Overseeing Brand Equity | B. Organizational Design and Structures | C. Managing Marketing Partners | D. All are true

D. All are true

78. The performance of a brand is also ........... on the actions taken by outside suppliers and marketing partners. | A. Countable | B. Reactive | C. Dependent

C. Dependent

79. To provide central coordination, the firm should establish a position responsible for overseeing the .............. of the brand charter and brand equity reports. | A. Understanding | B. Implementation | C. Usage

B. Implementation

80. Virtually every marketing dollar spent today must be justified as both effective and efficient in terms of ..................... | A. Return on investment (ROI) | B. Return on marketing investment (ROMI) | C. Profit

B. Return on marketing investment (ROMI)

81. Some questions to understand customer ..........: Who buys our product or service? Who makes the decision to buy the product? Who influences the decision to buy the product? How is the purchase decision made? Who assumes what role? What does the customer buy? What needs must be satisfied? Why do customers buy a particular brand? Where do they go or look to buy the product or service? | A. Behavior | B. Feelings | C. Thinkings | D. Perception

A. Behavior

82. Qualitative research techniques often identify possible brand associations and sources of............ | A. Brand image | B. Brand equity | C. Brand awareness | D. Brand recall

B. Brand equity

83. There are many different ways to uncover the types of associations linked to the brand and their corresponding strength, favorability, and ........... | A. Reputation | B. Ruggedness | C. Uniqueness | D. Difference

C. Uniqueness

84. In the free association method, subjects are asked what ............. when they think of a brand with no more specific probe or cue than perhaps the associated product category. | A. Are the benefit of the products or services | B. Do they appreciate | C. Comes to mind

C. Comes to mind

85. The free association method is used mainly to identify the range of possible brand............ in consumers' minds. | A. Awareness | B. Associations | C. Recall | D. Recognition

B. Associations

86. Projective techniques are diagnostic tools to uncover the true opinions and feelings of consumers when they are unwilling or otherwise .........to express themselves on these matters. | A. Unable | B. Creative | C. Sensitive

A. Unable

87. Projective techniques present consumers with ambiguous stimuli and ask them to ........................it. | A. Draw | B. Make sense of | C. Describe

B. Make sense of

88. The classic projective technique, "Completion and Interpretation Tasks" uses incomplete or ambiguous stimuli to elicit consumer thoughts and........ | A. Concerns | B. Feelings | C. Analysis | D. Comparison

B. Feelings

89. The projective technique, "Comparison Tasks" asks consumers to convey impressions by comparing brands to: (check all that apply) | A. People | B. Countries | C. Animals | D. Activities

A. People; B. Countries; C. Animals; D. Activities

90. Neuromarketing is the study of how the brain ......... marketing stimuli, including brands. | A. Relates to | B. Responds to | C. Analyze

B. Responds to

91. Brand personality is human ............. or traits that consumers can attribute to a brand. | A. Characteristic | B. Signatures | C. Emotions

A. Characteristic

92. The big five factors (with underlying facets) of brand...............: Sincerity, Excitement, Competence, Sophistication, Ruggedness. | A. Equity | B. Awareness | C. Personality | D. Image

C. Personality

93. Down-to-earth, honest, wholesome, and cheerful are the facets of........... | A. Competence | B. Excitement | C. Sincerity | D. Sophistication

C. Sincerity

94. Daring, spirited, imaginative, and up-to-date are the facets of ...................... | A. Sincerity | B. Excitement | C. Competence | D. Ruggedness

B. Excitement

95. Reliable, intelligent, and successful are the facets of ..................... | A. Ruggedness | B. Excitement | C. Competence | D. Sophistication

C. Competence

96. Upper class and charming are the facets of .................. | A. Competence | B. Excitement | C. Ruggedness | D. Sophistication

D. Sophistication

97. Outdoorsy and tough are the facets of ............ | A. Sincerity | B. Excitement | C. Competence | D. Ruggedness

D. Ruggedness

98. Whereas qualitative research typically elicits some type of verbal response from consumers, quantitative research typically employs various types of scale questions from which researchers can draw .......... representations and summaries. | A. Abstract | B. Numerical | C. Clear | D. Rational

B. Numerical

99. Quantitative Research Techniques, brand awareness, related to the strength of the brand in memory, reflected by consumers' ability to identify various brand ............ | A. Usages | B. Elements | C. Personality | D. Characteristics

B. Elements

100. Quantitative Research Techniques, brand image, are useful for marketers to make a distinction between: Lower-level considerations (performance and imagery), Higher-level considerations (..............) | A. Judgments and feelings | B. Customer relationships | C. Brand resonance

A. Judgments and feelings