Comprehensive Radiography Exam Review

120 question-and-answer flashcards summarizing key physics, positioning, protection, pathology, and patient-care concepts from the lecture notes to aid exam review.

Which type of automatic exposure control (AEC) device is most commonly used in diagnostic radiography?

The ionization-chamber AEC.

Which patient statement is considered subjective data?

“I have pain in my right upper quadrant.”

Where is the stator of an x-ray tube located?

Outside the glass envelope of the tube.

How does receptor exposure relate to milliampere-seconds (mAs)?

Receptor exposure is directly proportional to mAs.

Which hip projection uses a 15–20° posterior CR angle with the IR tilted back the same amount?

The Clements-Nakayama axiolateral hip projection.

Which statement about filtration is FALSE?

Lead is a common filtering material (aluminum is used, not lead).

What does the medical term “epistaxis” mean?

A nosebleed.

For exposure reproducibility, the output intensity may not vary by more than what percentage?

±5 %.

Blunting of the costophrenic angles on a chest radiograph most commonly indicates what pathology?

Pleural effusion.

Blood pressure is recorded in what units?

Millimetres of mercury (mm Hg).

How many fused bones form an adult hip (os coxae)?

Three fused bones (ilium, ischium, pubis).

Which decubitus position best shows fluid in the right pleural cavity?

Right lateral decubitus.

For a Grashey (AP oblique) shoulder, the patient is rotated how far and in which direction?

35–45° toward the affected (injured) shoulder.

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride is classified as what kind of drug?

An antihistamine.

For a medial oblique foot, the plantar surface is rotated how many degrees?

About 30° medially.

The petrous ridges are part of which cranial bone?

The temporal bone.

A blow-out fracture typically involves which bony structure?

The orbital floor.

For a right or left dorsal decubitus abdomen, where does the central ray enter?

The mid-coronal plane about 2 in (5 cm) above the iliac crest.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that increases the anode heel effect?

Patient body habitus (e.g., asthenic patients).

Which of these conditions is additive and requires an increase in technical factors?

Pneumonia.

What happens to relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) as linear energy transfer (LET) decreases?

RBE also decreases.

An LPO rib position best demonstrates which ribs?

The left posterior ribs and their axillary portions.

What is the atomic number (Z) of tungsten (W)?

74.

Which factor does NOT affect radiographic spatial resolution?

mAs has no direct effect on spatial resolution.

According to the NCRP, exposure reproducibility must be within what percentage?

±5 %.

The ureters enter the urinary bladder on which surface?

The posterolateral surface of the bladder.

Where is the temporal pulse palpated?

Just in front of the ear, over the temporal artery.

Significant fading of a CR latent image begins after roughly how many hours?

About 8 hours.

High radiographic contrast is also called what type of scale?

Short-scale contrast.

The active phosphor layer of a CR imaging plate is made of what material?

Barium fluorohalide with europium (BaF:Eu²⁺).

When a child must be held for an exposure, who is the preferred holder?

The child’s parent (e.g., father) wearing protective shielding.

A CR plate stored unused for 48 h should be erased to prevent what artifact?

Image fog from background exposure.

A fracture of the distal fourth or fifth metacarpal with dorsal angulation is called what?

A Boxer’s fracture.

Tissues with higher oxygen content exhibit greater what?

Radiosensitivity (oxygen effect).

Foreshortening means an object is imaged how?

Smaller than its actual size on the image receptor.

Among the listed radiations, which has the lowest LET?

Diagnostic x-rays.

During fluoroscopy, what system automatically maintains image brightness?

Automatic brightness control (ABC).

For a PA hand, the central ray is centered to which joint?

The third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint.

Intramuscular injections are given at what needle angle?

90° to the skin surface.

If 12 mAs at 400 mA is adequate, what exposure time is needed at 1200 mA?

10 ms (0.01 s).

Misalignment of tube, part, and IR produces what kind of distortion?

Shape distortion.

In digital imaging, unwanted random fluctuations that obscure detail are called what?

Noise.

What does the modulation transfer function (MTF) describe?

The imaging system’s ability to reproduce contrast at different spatial frequencies (resolution + blur).

What term describes procedures that inhibit the growth of microorganisms on living tissue?

Antisepsis.

According to Bergonie & Tribondeau, which cell type is least radiosensitive?

Nerve cells.

The space between the dura mater and arachnoid is called what?

The subdural space.

Which statement about digital image resolution is NOT true?

A larger pixel pitch improves resolution (it actually degrades resolution).

Which of the following is NOT considered a vital sign?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.

Selecting the anatomic part from a programmed console refers to what system?

APR – Anatomically Programmed Radiography.

A medial (internal) oblique elbow places which structure in profile?

The coronoid process of the ulna.

Which statement about x-rays is FALSE?

X-rays travel at the speed of sound.

Grid absorption of useful primary radiation is referred to as what?

Grid cutoff.

Which of the following is NOT considered a mild systemic contrast reaction?

Wheezing (it indicates a more serious reaction).

The major calyces of the kidney drain directly into what structure?

The renal pelvis.

Turning the hand so the palm faces anteriorly with the thumb lateral is called what?

Supination.

During which phase of acute radiation syndrome do initial symptoms disappear?

The latent phase.

A fetal dose of 0.25 Gy during weeks 8–12 most likely results in what?

Neurologic (CNS) anomalies.

For AC-joint imaging, why must the patient be upright?

Gravity allows demonstration of joint separation/dislocation; recumbent views are inadequate.

What is the radiation weighting factor (wR) for alpha particles?

20.

Which variable does NOT influence systemic blood pressure?

Blood glucose level.

Which radiation type is the most ionizing in tissue?

Alpha particles.

The lower collimator shutters primarily reduce what?

Penumbra (edge blur).

Which PA oblique chest view best demonstrates the right lung?

Left anterior oblique (LAO).

Typical kVp for an adult PA chest using a grid is approximately what?

About 120 kVp.

The sagittal and coronal sutures intersect at what cranial landmark?

Bregma.

Which tissue has a weighting factor of 0.20?

Gonads.

For an AP external-rotation shoulder, how is the hand positioned?

Supinated (palm up).

A sphygmomanometer is used to measure what vital sign?

Arterial blood pressure.

In shielding design, the fraction of time the primary beam strikes a barrier is called what?

Use factor.

Which task is outside a radiographer’s scope of practice?

Suctioning a patient’s airway.

Lead aprons and gloves must be checked for integrity how often?

At least once a year.

AP oblique (RPO/LPO) lumbar images best show which joints?

Zygapophyseal joints closest to the IR.

In a Waters (parietoacanthial) projection, the CR exits at which landmark?

The acanthion.

Dose equivalent is expressed in which SI unit?

Sievert (Sv).

Drugs that suppress coughing are classified as what?

Antitussives.

Warming iodinated contrast media affects viscosity how?

It lowers (decreases) the viscosity.

What is the tissue weighting factor assigned to the gonads?

0.20.

Which lumbar projection best demonstrates intervertebral foramina?

The lateral lumbar spine projection.

In digital imaging, an algorithm is best defined as what?

A set of mathematical instructions used for image reconstruction/processing.

For PA oblique cervical spine, how is the CR angled?

15–20° caudad.

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient is examined in what position?

Recumbent (supine).

A fracture through the pedicles of C-2 with anterior displacement is called what?

A hangman’s fracture.

Which factor is NOT required for acute radiation syndrome?

Internal ingestion of radionuclides.

The proximal tibiofibular joint is best shown on which knee view?

Medial (internal) oblique knee.

For an AP scapula, how is the arm positioned?

Abducted 90° from the body with elbow flexed (salute position).

In myelography, contrast is injected into which space?

The subarachnoid space at the L3–L4 level.

A technique chart that uses optimum kVp and varies mAs is called what?

A fixed-kVp/variable-mAs technique chart.

For a Camp-Coventry knee with 40° flexion, how is the CR angled?

40° caudad to match the tibial plateau.

Electrons in which shell have the lowest binding energy?

Those in the N-shell (outermost).

If SID is cut in half, how should mAs be adjusted to maintain exposure?

Reduce mAs to one-quarter of its original value.

The amount of time x-rays are directed toward a barrier is known as what?

Use factor.

The percentage of signal photons detected by a receptor is described by what metric?

Detective quantum efficiency (DQE).

A step-down transformer does what to the voltage?

Reduces (steps down) the voltage while increasing current.

To correct mandibular superimposition on an AP axial cervical spine, what positioning change is needed?

Elevate the patient’s chin.

Effective communication in a stressful setting should include what behaviors?

Speak slowly, be non-judgmental, remain calm, and verify understanding.

Collimator light accuracy must be within what percent of SID?

2 % of the SID.

The iliac crest is at approximately what vertebral level?

The level of L4–L5.

What is the pixel size for a 2048 × 2048 matrix with a 60 cm FOV?

Approximately 0.3 mm.

Increasing total filtration has what effect on beam quality?

It raises the half-value layer (increases beam quality).

For an AP elbow, which statements are correct?

Forearm and humerus parallel; CR perpendicular; patient may lean laterally to maintain alignment (statements 2, 3, and 5).