ATPL (Philippines) - Navigation 1

1. On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to:

a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

b. Make a note of the details

c. Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC

d. Do nothing until a TA is received

a. Initiate the required maneuver immediately

2. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?

a. Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

b. Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip

c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference

d. Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

c. Mountain effect, station interference, static interference

3. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:

a. White, blue, amber

b. Blue, white, amber

c. Blue, amber, white

d. Amber, blue, white

c. Blue, amber, white

4. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate within:

a. 3% of range

b. 1.25% of range

c. 0.5nm

d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

d. ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

5. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots:

a. To update the database

b. To read information only

c. To change information between the 28 day updates

d. To change the information to meet the sector requirements

b. To read information only

6. A typical DME frequency is:

a. 1000 MHz

b. 1300 MHz

c. 1000 kHz

d. 1575 MHz

a. 1000 MHz

7. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

a. SSR

b. DME

c. GPS

d. AWR

d. AWR

8. The IRS position can be updated:

a. On the ground only

b. At designated positions en-route and on the ground

c. On the ground and overhead VOR/DME

d. At selected waypoints and on the ground

a. On the ground only

9. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m?

a. UHF

b. LF

c. HF

d. MF

b. LF

10. DME and VOR are "frequency paired" because:

a. The same receiver can be used for both aids

b. The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency

c. Cockpit workload is reduced

d. Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required

c. Cockpit workload is reduced

11. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is _____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of rotation of the bearing signal is ______.

a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

b. AM, FM, clockwise

c. FM, AM, anti-clockwise

d. FM, AM, clockwise

a. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

12. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:

a. UHF

b. VHF

c. SHF

d. VLF

a. UHF

13. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?

a. A VOR on the flight plan route

b. A VOR off the flight plan route

c. A DME on the flight plan route

d. A DME off the flight plan route

c. A DME on the flight plan route

14. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

a. Twin DME

b. VOR/DME

c. Twin VOR

d. Any of the above

b. VOR/DME

15. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:

a. Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light

b. Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber light

c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light

d. One letter in Morse with synchronized white light

c. Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light

16. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

a. Are magnetic

b. Are compass

c. Are relative

d. Must have deviation applied before being used

a. Are magnetic

17. At the magnetic equator:

a. Dip is zero

b. Variation is zero

c. Deviation is zero

d. The isogonal is an agonic line

a. Dip is zero

18. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:

a. 285, TO

b. 105, TO

c. 285, FROM

d. 105, FROM

a. 285, TO

19. An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot:

a. Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the island

b. Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the island

c. Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the island

d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

d. Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the island

20. An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the OBS?

a. 274

b. 264

c. 094

d. 084

c. 094

21. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track?

a. 6nm right of track

b. 3nm right of track

c. 6nm left of track

d. 3nm left of track

c. 6nm left of track

22. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the RMI indicates:

a. That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

b. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

c. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

d. That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

23. An aircraft bears 175°(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 and its heading is 359°(M), which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator? (Assume 1 dot = 2°)

A

A

24. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:

a. The DME is unserviceable

b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

c. The DME is trying to lock onto frequency

d. The DME is receiving no response from the ground station

b. The DME is trying to lock onto range

25. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

a. On take-off

b. At TOC

c. At TOD

d. On final approach

c. At TOD

26. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC

b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft's proximity

c. RAs must never be disregarded

d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

27. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that:

a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft.

c. TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S.

d. TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

28. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm. The reason for this is:

a. The beacon is saturated

b. The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME

c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

d. The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger a response

c. The aircraft is beyond line of sight range

29. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at 60nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, at what altitude are the tops of the cloud?

a. 6,000ft

b. 31,000ft

c. 43,000ft

d. 49,000ft

b. 31,000ft

30. At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?

a. 3.5nm

b. 1.75nm

c. 7nm

d. 1nm

a. 3.5nm

31. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to:

a. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

c. 064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

d. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM indication

b. 244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO indication

32. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain

b. Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS

c. Has a selective access ability

d. Is not affected by heavy precipitation

a. Can be used in inhospitable terrain

33. The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU is:

a. 5000.0N00527.0E

b. N50E00527

c. N5000.0E00527.0

d. N5000E00527

c. N5000.0E00527.0

34. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated 2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be made?

a. 190ft

b. 1,378ft

c. 36,100ft

d. 84,100ft

c. 36,100ft

35. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level?

a. 274nm

b. 255nm

c. 112nm

d. 224nm

a. 274nm

36. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:

a. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate

b. DME transmit and receives on different frequencies

c. It will only accept the unique twin DME pulses

d. DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators

c. It will only accept the unique twin DME pulses

37. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:

a. Snow

b. Moderate rain

c. Dry hail

d. Wet hail

a. Snow

38. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:

a. ± 3°

b. ± 5°

c. ± 6°

d. ± 10°

b. ± 5°

39. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of:

a. Ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter

b. Back scattering of the signals

c. Multiple lobes in the radiation pattern

d. Reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter

c. Multiple lobes in the radiation pattern

40. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a. 0°

b. 90°

c. 180°

d. 64°

b. 90°

41. An aircraft at FL360 is 10nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:

a. 8nm

b. 11.7nm

c. 10nm

d. 13.6nm

b. 11.7nm

42. The frequency band of VOR is:

a. UHF

b. HF

c. LF & MF

d. VHF

d. VHF

43. When and where are IRS positions updated?

a. during flignt IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC

b. IRS positions are updated by pressing the Takeoff/Go Around button at the start of the takeoff roll

c. Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)

d. only on the ground during the alignment procedure

d. only on the ground during the alignment procedure

44. The sequence of displays accessed on initialisation is:

a. IDENT , POS INIT, RTE

b. POS, RTE, PERF INIT

c. POS, RTE, DEP

a. IDENT , POS INIT, RTE

45. The period of validity of an FMS database is:

a. 28 days

b. 30 days

c. 21 days

d. 35 days

a. 28 days

46. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

a. TOC

b. Just after takeoff

c. TOD

d. On final approach

c. TOD

47. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-NAV) system is:

a. 1 nm standard deviation or better

b. 0.25 nm standard deviation or better

c. 0.5 nm standard deviation or better

d. 1.5 nm standard deviation or better

a. 1 nm standard deviation or better

48. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:

a. the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

b. the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency?

c. the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength

d. the tbe size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector

a. the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

49. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you should take is:

a. fly left and down

b. fly right and down

c. fly right and up

d. fly left and up

b. fly right and down

50. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:

a. the DME is unserviceable

b. the DME is receiving no response from the transponder

c. the transponder is unserviceable

d. the DME is in the search mode

d. the DME is in the search mode