CMA Final Module 2

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244 Terms

1
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vii = __

a. 3

b. 9

c. 12

d. 8

e. 7

e. 7

2
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32 kg = ___ g

a. 14.5

b. 70.4

c. 0.032

d. 32000

e. 3200

d. 32000

3
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0.8 lb = ___ oz

a. 0.8

b. 9.6

c. 12.8

d. 0.05

e. none are correct

c. 12.8

4
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48.4 F = ___ C

a. 119.1

b. 9.1

c. -5.1

d. 100.5

e. none are correct

b. 9.1

5
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Prescription: XYZ medication 150 mg, 3 tabs qid * 10 days. How many tablets will be dispensed from the pharmacy ? (round the answer to the nearest tenth)

a. 90

b. 60

c. 30

d. 150

e. none are correct

e. none are correct

6
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Order: ABC 175 mg po. Stock: ABC 700 mg po scored tablets. How many tablets will the patient take per dose ? (do not round your answers)

a. 4 tabs

b. 0.25 tab

c. 0.5 tab

d. 0.75 tab

e. none are correct

b. 0.25 tab

7
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Order: ABC 175 mg po. Stock: ABC 700 mg po scored tablets. How many tablets will the patient take per dose ? (do not round your answer)

a. 4 tabs

b. 0.25 tab

c. 0.5 tab

d. 0.75 tab

e. none are correct

b. 0.25 tab

8
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Order: ABC 450 mg Stock: ABC 780 mg/2mL. How many mL(s) will you give ? (round the answer to nearest tenth)

a. 0.3 mL

b. 3.5 mL

c. 0.6 mL

d. 1.2 mL

e. none are correct

d, 1.2 mL

9
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The manufacturer’s name for the drug is the

a. generic name

b. brand name

c. chemical name

d. label name

b. brand name

10
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This indicates the batch of drug the medication came from

a. manufacturer

b. NDC

c. lot number

d. expiration date

c. lot number

11
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Round the following number to the tenth place: 86.6432

a. 87

b. 86.6

c. 86.7

d. 86.64

e. 86.65

b. 86.6

12
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Which of these rights are checked when preparing the medication ?

a. patient

b. dose

c. route

d. all are correct

e. dose and route

e. dose and route

13
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What is part of verifying the “Right Medication” ?

a. checking the name of the medication against the order

b. checking the dose of the medication against the order

c. checking the form of the medication against the order

d. all are correct

e. checking the name of the medication against the order and the checking the form of the medication against the order

e. Checking the name of the medication against the order and checking the from of the medication against the order

14
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What education must be provided prior to giving medications ?

a. name of the medication

b. provider ordering th medication

c. desired effect of the medication

d. common side effects and verify patients allergies

e. all are correct

e. all are correct

15
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When taking a sublingual or buccal medication, what would be an error in the administration technique ?

a. Do not chew or swallow the medication

b. Give water prior to taking the medication

c. Do not give water immediately after taking the medication

d. Always use the same cheek when taking buccal medication

e. Place the sublingual medication under the tongue

d. Always use the same cheek when taking buccal medication

16
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This part of the needle attaches or screws onto the syringe

a. Lumen

b. Bevel

c.Hilt

d. Hub

e. Plunger

d. Hub

17
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This is the hollow space inside the needle

a. Gauge

b. Lumen

c. Hilt

d. Hub

e. Bevel

b. Lumen

18
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To withdraw fluid using suction

a. Diluent

b. Reconstituted

c. Aspirate

d. Precipitate

e. Viscosity

c. Aspirate

19
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You need to give and intradermal injection. What needle and syringe should you use ?

a. 1 mL syringe, 1/8 inch, 28 gauge needle

b. 0.1 mL syringe, ½ inch , 28 gauge needle

c. 3 mL syringe, ¼ inch, 22 gauge needle

d. 1mL syringe, ½ inch, 27 gauge needle

e. 1mL syringe, ¼ inch, 23 gauge needle

d. 1mL syringe, ½ inch, 27 gauge needle

20
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What is the correct regarding the Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST) ?

a. The wheat must be 4-6 cm or the test must be repeated

b. Massage the area after giving the TST

c. The patient must return between 48-72 hours for a reading

d. The induration size is measured in cm

e. All are correct

c. The patient must return between 48-72 hours for a reading

21
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A liquid substance that lessens the strength of a solution or mixture

a. diluent

b. reconstituted

c. aspirate

d. precipitate

e. local

a. diluent

22
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The M in the abbreviation ARMD stands for

a. myopia

b. mileusis

c. macular

d. myasthenia

c. macular

Age Related Macular Regeneration

23
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Dull or dim vision is

a. amblyopia

b. diplopia

c. myopia

d. hyperopia

a. amblyopia

24
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Nearsightedness is

a. amblyopia

b. diplopia

c. myopia

d. hyperopia

c. myopia

25
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Infection of one of the sebaceous glands of an eyelash or “sty” is

a. chalazion

b. hordeolum

c. keratitis

d. conjunctivitis

b. hordeolum

26
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Progressive destruction of macula lutea, causing a loss of central vision, is:

a. a cataract

b. glaucoma

c. ARMD

d. corneal abrasion

c. ARMD

27
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Dizziness, an abnormal sensation of movement when there is none is

a. tinnitus

b. vertigo

c. Meniere disease

d. impacted cerumen

b. vertigo

28
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Visual examination of the external auditory canal and the lympanic membrane is

a. otoscopy

b. audiometric testing

c. tunning fork test

d. tympanostomy

a. otoscopy

29
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Surgical creation of an opening through the eardrum to promote drainage and/or allow the introduction of artificial tubes to maintain the opening is

a. otoscopy

b. audiometric testing

c. tympanostomy

d. myringotomy

c. tympanostomy

30
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The average person blinks two or three times a second to

a. rest the eyes briefly

b. cleanse the eyes

c. refocus the eyes

d. avoid eyestrain

b. cleanse the eyes

31
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Which of the following is true about an error of refraction ?

a. Light rays are not being bent properly to focus on the retina

b. Light rays are not being expanded as they should be

c. The tods and cones are not functioning

d. The retina lacks a sufficient blood supply

a. Light rays are not being bent properly to focus on the retina

32
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The term for layers, as in the epithelium, is

a. stria

b. strata

c. lumina

d. serosa

b. strata

33
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Wha is a superficial skin infection, caused by Streptococcus sp. or Staphlyococcus aureus that is usually seen in children but also possible in adults ?

a. Atopic dermatitis

b. Contact dermatitis

c. Impetigo

d. Cellulitis

c. Impetigo

34
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Inflammatory scaling disease of the scalp and face in newborns known as cradle cap is

a. atopic dermatitis

b. seborrheic dermatitis

c. contact dermatitis

d. impetigo

b. seborrheic dermatitis

35
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A condition that is not an infection but appears as redness on the nose, cheeks, chin and forehead is called

a. scleroderma

b. rosacea

c. warts

d. vitiligo

b. rosacea

36
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A parasitic infestation caused by mites and characterized by intense itching is:

a. tinea curls

b. pediculosis

c. scabies

d. tinea corporis

c. scabies

37
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A patient thickness burn in whoch the first and second layers of the skin are affected is a ____ degree burn

a. first

b. second

c. third

d. fourth

b. second

38
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The Rule of Nines describes the:

a. percentage of body surface affected by burns

b. size of a tumor

c. severity of the burn

d. tratment time for PUVA

a. percentage of body surface affected by burns

39
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Which of the following is considered secondary lesions ?

a, Macules

b. Plaques

c. Ulcerations

d. Cysts

c. Ulcerations

40
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Which of the following methods is used when an entire mole is removed for examination under a microscope ?

a. Excision biopsy

b. Punch biopsy

c. Shave biopsy

d. All are correct

a. Excision biopsy

41
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Allergist

Treatment of hypersensitivity reactions

42
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Cardiologist

Treatment of heart disease

43
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Geriatrician

Treatment of disease of old age

44
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Oncologist

Diagnosis and treatment of malignant and benign tumors

45
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Pathologist

Diagnosis of disease by analysis of cells

46
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Radiation oncologist

Treatment of disease with high energy radiation

47
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Urologist

Surgery on the urinary tract and for treatment of male reproductive disorders

48
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esthesi/o

sensation

49
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gynec/o

woman, female

50
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iatr/o

treatment

51
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nos/o

disease

52
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opthalm/o

eye

53
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op/o

eye

54
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pulmon/o

lung

55
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rhin/o

nose

56
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Surgical instruments generally are classified according to use. Which is not a classification for instruments ?

a. Cutting

b. Grasping

c. Restabalizing

d. Probing and dilating

c. Restabalizing

57
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How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete ?

a. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collective basin

b. Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury

c. Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning

d. Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds

e. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basic and use detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds

a. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collective basin

58
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The recommended method for cleaning sharp instruments is to:

a. use an ultrasonic cleaner

b. wear appropriate PPE

c. use the proper concentration of disinfect

d. rinse instruments with sterile water before sterilizing

a. use an ultrasonic cleaner

59
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These instruments have very sharp hooks

a. tissue forceps

b. needle holders

c. splinter forceps

d. towel forceps (towel clamps)

d. towel forceps (towel clamps)

60
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Which are the largest hemostat forceps ?

a. mosquito forceps

b. curved forceps

c. kelly forceps

d. straight forceps

c. kelly forceps

61
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Venipunctures or injections must be preformed using which of the following protocols ?

a. asepsis

b. medical asepsis

c. surgical asepsis

d. sterile technique

c. surgical asepsis

62
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Local anesthesia last as long as 5 hours

a. true

b. false

b. false

63
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One method of controlling epistasis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site

a. true

b. false

a. true

64
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Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal

a. true

b. false

b. false

65
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No harm is fone if a sterile field gets wet

a. true

b. false

b. false

66
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Which statement is not true about informed consent for surgery ?

a. The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining the patients consent to treatment

b. The patient must understand the potential risks and benefits of the surgery

c. The patient must understand the possible risks pf any alternative treatment

d. The patient cannot give consent if he or she has recieved preoperative medication

a. The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining the patients consent to treatment

67
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The LEEP excisional procedure is considered which of the following ?

a. Electrosurgery

b. Laser surgery

c. Microsurgery

d. Endoscopy

e. Cryosurgery

a. Electrosurgery

68
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Which of the following endoscope is rigid ?

a. Laparoscope

b. Colonoscope

c. Bronchoscope

d. Gasteroscope

a. Laparoscope

69
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Under which of the following post-operative conditions should a patient call the office immediately ?

a, redness around the operative site

b. bleeding from the wound

c. fever or swelling

d. increasing or severe pain

e. all are correct

e. all are correct

70
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Which of the following passes through to a body organ or cavity ?

a. increased wound

b. Lacerated wound

c. Perforated wound

d. Penetrating wound

e. Perforated wound and penetrating wound

e. Perforated wound and penetrating wound

71
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What type of wound has jagged irregular edges ?

a. avulsion

b. puncture

c. laceration

d. abrasion

c. laceration

72
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Which phase of wound healing is referred to as proliferation ?

a. first phase

b. second phase

c. third phase

d. final phase

c. third phase

73
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Which of the following bandage materials is superior for covering round narrow surfaces such as fingers or toes ?

a. plain roller gauze

b. wrinkled crepe-type roller bandage

c. elastic bandage

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

e. all are correct

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

74
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When using which bandage do you need to keep consistent spacing and tension to ensure even pressure ?

a. plain roller gauze

b. wrinkled crepe-type roller bandage

c. elastic bandage

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

c. elastic bandage

75
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What are chemical messengers secreted by cells of the immune system that direct immune cellular interactions ?

a. antigens

b. antibodies

c. macrophages

d. cytokines

d. cytokines

76
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An example of a second line nonspecific defense is

a. sneezing

b. perspiration

c. the sin

d. fever

d. fever

77
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Monocytes change into __ when they leave the bloodstream and enter tissues

a. NK cells

b. T cells

c. B cells

d. macrophages

d. macrophages

78
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Passage of antibodies through the placenta or breast milk is which type of immunity ?

a. natural active-acquired immunity

b. artificial active-acquired immunity

c. natural passive-acquire immunity

d. artifical passive-acquire immunity

c. natural passive-acquire immunity

79
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Myasthenia gravis, psoriasis, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of

a. autoimmune disease

b. AIDS

c. anaphylaxis

d. allergy

a. autoimmune disease

80
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Hypersensitivity that appears 24-48 hours after exposure to an antigen is called:

a. hypersplenism

b. immediate hypersensitivity

c. delayed hypersensitivity

d. lymphedema

c. delayed hypersensitivity

81
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Hypersensitivity such as food allergies and bee sting allergies are called

a. hypersplenism

b. immediate hypersensitivity

c. delayed hypersensitivity

d. lymphedema

b. immediate hypersensitivity

82
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Cancer identified by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is called

a. malignant thymoma

b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c. non-Hidkin’s lynphoma

d. multiple mystoma

b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

83
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A cancer of plasma cells is called:

a. malignant thymoma

b. AML

c. multiple myeloma

d. CML

c. multiple myeloma

84
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Afferent nerves are also called

a. motor nerves

b. peripheral nerves

c. interneurons

d. sensory nerves

d. sensory nerves

85
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The basic unit of the nervous sytem is the nerve cell or

a, neuroglia

b. neuron

c. Schwann cell

d. nuerotransmitter

b. neuron

86
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What structure that slows the passage or prevents some drugs and disease-causing organisms from entering the brain tissue ?

a. Nerve root

b. Canuda equina

c, Meninges

d. Blood-brain barrier

d. Blood-brain barrier

87
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What is the sudden increase of electrical activity in one or more parts of the brain, also called convulsions ?

a. Seizures

b. Syncope

c. Spasms

d. Tremors

a. Seizures

88
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A synonym for ALS is:

a. Alzheimer’s disease

b. Lou Gehrig disease

c. Bell’s palsy

d. MS

b. Lou Gehrig disease

89
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A nuerological disorder that causes tics is:

a. epilepsy

b. narcolepsy

c. Bell’s palsy

d. Tourette syndrome

d. Tourette syndrome

90
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Paralyssi of the same or all of the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs is

a. hemiplegia

b. hemiparesis

c. diplegia

d. paraplegia

d. paraplegia

91
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What is a disorder in which the individual is unable to do normal activities of living (e.g. eating, dressing, grooming) solve problems, and control emotions ?

a. Delirium

b. Dementia

c. Defense mechanism

d. Autism

b. Dementia

92
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What is important to tell the patient when providing coaching on EEG preparation ?

a. Wash hair the evening or morning before the procedure and do not use any hair cars products

b. Avoid consuming caffeine for 2 days priot to the procedure

c. The technician will apply 10-12 electrodes to the scalp

d. The test will take 15-30 minutes

a. Wash hair the evening or morning before the procedure and do not use any hair cars products

93
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The amygada is found in each ____ lobe and is involved with the limbic system

a. frontal

b. temporal

c. occipital

d. parietal

b. temporal

94
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Aort/o

aorta

95
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Arteriolol/o

arteriole

96
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Angi/o

vessel

97
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Cadi/o

heart

98
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Coron/o

heart

99
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An/o

anus

100
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Cholesyst/o

gallbladder