Directors' duties and responsibilities

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Last updated 5:18 PM on 9/22/26
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238 Terms

1
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What is the first step when analysing a loan or related transaction involving a director?

Identify the type of company entering into the transaction.

2
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What three company types should be distinguished when analysing loans and related transactions to directors?

A plc; a private company associated with a plc; and a private company not associated with a plc.

3
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Which companies are subject to heavier restrictions on loans and related transactions to directors?

Plcs and private companies associated with a plc.

4
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When is a private company associated with a plc because it is a subsidiary?

Where the plc controls more than 50% of the private company’s shares.

5
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When can a private company be associated with a plc as a sister company?

Where both are subsidiaries of the same parent company, with the parent owning more than 50% of each.

6
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What is the second step when analysing a loan or related transaction involving a director?

Identify the type of transaction.

7
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What types of transactions must be considered in the rules on loans and related transactions to directors?

Loans, quasi-loans, credit transactions, and security or guarantees relating to them.

8
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What is a quasi-loan to a director?

The company pays a director’s debt to a third party on the understanding that the director will reimburse the company.

9
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What is a credit transaction with a director?

The company provides goods or services to the director on the basis that payment will be made later.

10
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What is security in the context of a director’s loan?

A fixed or floating charge over a company asset securing a director’s loan with a bank.

11
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What is a guarantee in the context of a director’s debt?

A promise by the company to repay if the director defaults on an existing debt obligation.

12
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Which persons must be considered when analysing loans and related transactions to directors?

A director of the company or connected person, and a director of the company’s holding company or connected person.

13
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What shareholder resolution is relevant to loans and related transactions to directors?

An ordinary resolution.

14
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When does a private company with no plc association prima facie require shareholder approval?

For loans, or security/guarantees for loans, to a director of the company or its holding company.

15
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When does a plc or private company associated with a plc prima facie require shareholder approval?

For all types of covered transactions involving directors and connected persons.

16
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Which company must obtain shareholder approval where the transaction is with one of its own directors or a person connected with that director?

The company entering into the transaction.

17
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Which companies must obtain shareholder approval where the transaction is with a director of the company’s holding company or a connected person?

Both the company entering into the transaction and the holding company.

18
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What is the wholly-owned subsidiary exception to shareholder approval for director loans and related transactions?

Approval is not required from the members of a wholly-owned subsidiary.

19
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What minor-transaction threshold applies to loans and quasi-loans to directors?

Up to and including £10,000.

20
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What minor-transaction threshold applies to credit transactions with directors?

Up to and including £15,000.

21
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What is the board’s legal relationship to the company?

The board acts as the company’s agent, not as agent of the shareholders: Howard Smith Ltd v Ampol Petroleum Ltd.

22
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What is the board responsible for?

The day-to-day running and management of the company.

23
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Where does the board’s managerial power derive from?

The company’s articles, e.g. Model Articles 3 and 5.

24
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Can the board delegate decisions?

Yes, to a director or committee under MA 5.

25
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What is the minimum number of directors for a private limited company?

One.

26
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What is the minimum number of directors for a plc?

Two.

27
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What natural-person requirement applies to company directors?

At least one director must be a natural person under s 155 CA 2006.

28
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What minimum age applies to directors?

16 under s 157 CA 2006.

29
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What does s 159A CA provide about disqualified directors?

A disqualified person cannot be appointed as director unless the court permits it.

30
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Who are treated as persons connected with a director?

Primary family members; companies in which the director/connected persons hold 20%+; business partners and their connected persons; and trustees of trusts benefiting the director or connected persons.

31
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What is an executive director?

A director appointed to executive office and involved in day-to-day management.

32
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Is an executive director usually an employee?

Yes, usually under a service contract.

33
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What is a non-executive director?

An officer who is not an employee and is not involved in daily management.

34
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What is the role of a non-executive director?

Independent oversight and advice, including protection of shareholders’ interests.

35
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What is a de jure director?

A director validly appointed at law.

36
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What is a shadow director under s 251 CA 2006?

A person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the directors are accustomed to act.

37
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Does merely giving professional advice make someone a shadow director?

No: s 251(2).

38
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Which case illustrates that a disqualified person may still be a shadow director if controlling from behind the scenes?

Re Tasbian Ltd (No 3).

39
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What must be shown to establish a shadow director under Re Hydrodam (Corby) Ltd?

Identify the de jure directors; show the alleged shadow director directed them; show they acted on those directions; and show they were accustomed to do so.

40
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Can controlling shareholders or parent companies be shadow directors?

Yes, potentially.

41
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What did Secretary of State v Deverell establish about “directions or instructions”?

They can include suggestions where the board has placed itself in a subservient role and surrendered discretion.

42
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Is strong influence alone enough to establish shadow directorship?

No: Ultraframe (UK) Ltd v Fielding.

43
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What additional element is needed beyond strong influence for shadow directorship?

A governing majority of the board must be accustomed to act on that person’s directions.

44
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What is a de facto director?

Someone who acts as a director without valid appointment and participates in corporate governance/directorial decisions.

45
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Which case is associated with identifying de facto directors?

Re Hydrodam (Corby) Ltd.

46
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How are de facto directors treated for duties and liabilities?

Like de jure directors.

47
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What did HMRC v Holland establish?

Acting as de jure director of one company does not automatically make that person a director of another company for which the first company acts as corporate director.

48
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What practical distinction can be drawn between de facto and shadow directors?

De facto status focuses more on acting as a director towards third parties; shadow status concerns directing the actual board.

49
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What is an alternate director?

Someone who acts in place of a director when that director is unavailable.

50
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When are alternate directors permitted?

Only if the Articles allow them.

51
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Are alternate directors provided for in the Model Articles?

No.

52
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Who is usually appointed as an alternate director?

Another director or someone approved by the board.

53
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What factors help identify whether someone is acting as a director?

Whether their acts are directorial, whether the company held them out as a director, and whether third parties viewed them as such: Smithton Ltd v Naggar.

54
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How may directors be appointed under MA 17(1)?

By ordinary resolution of shareholders or by decision of the directors.

55
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Which method of appointing directors is usually more common?

Appointment by directors.

56
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What filing accompanies appointment of a director?

Form AP01.

57
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Must a proposed director consent to act?

Yes.

58
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Must companies now maintain internal registers of directors, PSCs or secretaries according to the notes?

No.

59
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What changes concerning directors must be notified to the Registrar?

Appointments and changes to required director information using the relevant Companies House forms.

60
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What director remuneration information must be disclosed under ss 412–413?

Salaries, bonuses and pension entitlements.

61
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What other director-related payments must be disclosed under ss 412–413?

Compensation for loss of office and certain advances, credit and guarantees.

62
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What is normally included in an executive director’s written service contract?

Duties, remuneration, notice and termination provisions.

63
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Is a director automatically entitled to a service contract?

No.

64
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Who determines a director’s terms and pay under MA 19?

The board.

65
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What approval is normally sufficient for a director’s service contract?

A board resolution.

66
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Where must director service contracts or memoranda of terms be kept?

At the registered office under s 228.

67
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What form records removal of a director at Companies House?

TM01.

68
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Can a director resign without board acceptance?

Yes: Glossop v Glossop.

69
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When does vacation of office occur automatically under MA 18?

If the director becomes legally prohibited, bankrupt, makes a composition with creditors, is physically/mentally incapable for over 3 months, or is subject to an IVA.

70
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How can shareholders remove a director?

By ordinary resolution under s 168 CA 2006.

71
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What notice is required for a resolution to remove a director?

28 clear days’ special notice.

72
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What right does the director have under s 169?

The right to be heard.

73
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Can a director be removed under s 168 by written resolution?

No.

74
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Can a director-shareholder vote on their own removal?

Yes.

75
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What is a Bushell v Faith clause?

An Articles provision giving a director-shareholder weighted voting rights capable of blocking their removal.

76
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What does s 1(1) CDDA 1986 prohibit a disqualified person from doing?

Acting as director or being involved in company management.

77
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When is disqualification mandatory under s 6(1) CDDA 1986?

Where a company becomes insolvent and the director’s conduct makes them unfit.

78
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What is the usual range of mandatory disqualification under s 6(1)?

2–15 years.

79
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What type of conduct often supports mandatory disqualification?

Abuse of limited liability or disregard of creditors: Secretary of State v Blunt.

80
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What are key discretionary grounds for director disqualification?

Criminal conviction connected with management; persistent filing defaults; fraud/wrongful trading; or public-interest grounds following investigation.

81
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Which case is associated with public-interest disqualification following investigation?

Secretary of State v Pawson.

82
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What happens if someone breaches a disqualification order?

It is a criminal offence and may also result in personal liability for company debts.

83
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Can compensation orders be made for creditor losses caused by misconduct?

Yes, under ss 15A–15C CDDA 1986.

84
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What is a disqualification undertaking?

A voluntary alternative to a court disqualification order under s 6(2).

85
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Can competition-law breaches result in director disqualification?

Yes, for up to 15 years.

86
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What retirement-by-rotation rule applies to public companies under the Model Articles?

Directors retire and seek reappointment every 3 years.

87
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How often are listed-company directors generally subject to re-election?

Annually.

88
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Do all types of director owe the same statutory duties?

Yes.

89
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To whom are directors’ duties owed?

The company, not individual shareholders.

90
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Whose interests may become relevant when the company is in financial difficulty?

Creditors.

91
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What is the basic nature of a fiduciary duty?

A person in a position of trust must not improperly benefit from that position.

92
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What is the duty under s 171 CA 2006?

To act within powers.

93
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What two elements does s 171 require?

Act according to the constitution and use powers only for proper purposes.

94
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How is proper purpose assessed?

Objectively: Extrasure Travel v Scattergood.

95
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What example illustrates an improper collateral purpose?

Exercising a company power principally to secure a personal advantage unrelated to its proper purpose.

96
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What did Hogg v Cramphorn establish?

Issuing shares to defeat a takeover can breach s 171.

97
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Can directors ever resist a takeover consistently with s 171?

Yes, if genuinely protecting the company: Teck Corp v Millar.

98
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What did Howard Smith v Ampol establish about share issues?

Issuing shares to destroy an existing majority rather than raise capital is an improper purpose.

99
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What did Eclairs Group v JKX Oil & Gas establish?

Using powers to manipulate voting outcomes can breach s 171.

100
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What principle comes from Re Smith & Fawcett Ltd in relation to directors’ powers?

Directors must act bona fide in what they consider to be the company’s interests, within the limits of their powers.