Ati science pt 2

1. The human body can be divided into how many primary body planes?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

b. Three

2. Which of the following is NOT a secondary function of the respiratory system?

a. pH regulation of the blood

b. Thermoregulation

c. Speech production

d. Heart rate regulation

d. Heart rate regulation

3. Which of the following is produced in the mucosal lining to aid in immune defense?

a. Immunoglobulin A

b. Killer T cells

c. Immature B cells

d. Eosinophils

a. Immunoglobulin A

4. Which of the following is NOT part of the brain stem?

a. Midbrain

b. Pons

c. Hypothalamus

d. Medulla oblongata

c. Hypothalamus

5. Which of the following represents the depolarization of the atria?

a. QRS interval

b. T wave

c. U wave

d. P wave

d. P wave

6. Which of the following enzymes begins the digestions of polysaccharides into simpler

sugars?

a. Lipase

b. Amylase

c. Pepsin

d. Cholinesterase

b. Amylase

7. The fundus refers to which of the following?

a. The most superior region of the stomach

b. The region where the trachea forks into primary bronchi

c. The thin stalk connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

d. The outer bone of the lower leg

a. The most superior region of the stomach

8. Which of the following separates one sarcomere from another?

a. A line

b. D line

c. O line

d. Z line

d. Z line

9. Which of the following phases is NOT part of the ovarian cycle?

a. Follicular phase

b. Ovulation

c. Proliferative phase

d. Luteal phas

c. Proliferative phase

10. Where do T cells mature?

a. Thymus

b. Thalamus

c. Tegmentum

d. Thyroid

a. Thymus

1. Which of the following is a colligative property?

a. Temperature

b. Surface tension

c. Viscosity

d. Osmotic pressure

d. Osmotic pressure

2. Which of the following is NOT a form of active transport?

a. Sodium-potassium pump

b. Endocytosis

c. Exocytosis

d. Osmosis

d. Osmosis

3. Which of the following is a lysosomal storage disease?

a. Tay-Sachs

b. Pfeiffer syndrome

c. Myasthenia gravis

d. Wernicke encephalopathy

a. Tay-Sachs

4. Which of the following is NOT a pyrimidine base?

a. Cytosine

b. Adenine

c. Thymine

d. Uracil

b. Adenine

5. Which of the following is the start codon of a messenger RNA sequence?

a. AUG

b. AAU

c. UCG

d. UAA

a. AUG

6. What is the probability of an offspring having a homozygous recessive trait if both parents

are heterozygous for the trait?

a. 100%

b. 75%

c. 50%

d. 25%

d. 25%

7. Which blood type is dominant?

a. A

b. B

c. O

d. They are all co-dominant.

d. They are all co-dominant.

8. How many components comprise the cycle of infection?

a. Three

b. Four

c. Five

d. Six

d. Six

9. Which of the following is a gram-negative bacterium?

a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

b. Haemophilus influenzae

c. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Haemophilus influenzae

10. Who is credited with taking the x-ray diffraction image used by Watson and Crick to

formulate the double-helix model of DNA?

a. Rosalind Franklin

b. Janet Taylor

c. Dorothy Hodgkin

d. Barbara McClintock

a. Rosalind Franklin

1. Which element has the highest atomic radius?

a. Strontium

b. Uranium

c. Francium

d. Radium

c. Francium

2. How do isotopes of the same element differ?

a. They have different numbers of protons.

b. They have different atomic numbers.

c. They have different numbers of electrons.

d. They have different numbers of neutrons.

d. They have different numbers of neutrons.

3. Which of the following electron shells can hold a maximum of 32 electrons?

a. K-shell

b. L-shell

c. M-shell

d. N-shell

d. N-shell

4. Which of the following is a substituted hydrocarbon compound containing an oxygen

molecule linking two hydrocarbon groups?

a. Aldehyde

b. Alcohol

c. Ether

d. Ketone

c. Ether

5. Which of the following is a compound with a nitrogen atom that contains a lone pair of

electrons and is bound to one or more hydrocarbon groups?

a. Amine

b. Benzene

c. Carboxylic acid

d. Thiol

a. Amine

6. Which of the following is NOT an extensive property?

a. Volume

b. Temperature

c. Mass

d. Electrical charge

b. Temperature

Which of the following is NOT true about water?

a. It is nonpolar.

b. It is cohesive.

c. It is adhesive.

d. It has a high specific heat

a. It is nonpolar.

8. An object that changes color in the presence of hydrogen or hydronium ions is said to be

which of the following?

a. Piezochromic

b. Bioluminescent

c. Chemiluminescent

d. Halochromic

d. Halochromic

9. Which of the following is a salt?

a. K2Cr2O7

b. Li2O

c. HF

a. K2Cr2O7

10. 𝟐𝐀𝐠𝐍𝐎𝟑 + 𝐂𝐮 → 𝐂𝐮(𝐍𝐎𝟑)𝟐 + 𝟐𝐀𝐠 is which type of reaction?

a. Decomposition

b. Metathesis

c. Combustion

d. Single replacemen

d. Single replacemen

1. Which of the following correctly describes the prefix hecto-?

a. 10−2

b. 10−1

c. 10^1

d. 10^2

d. 10^2

2. Which of the following should be used for accurately measuring a small amount of liquid?

a. Beaker

b. Test tubes

c. Erlenmeyer flask

d. Pipette

d. Pipette

3. Which of the following is a statement of behavior that consolidates all current

observations?

a. Hypothesis

b. Theory

c. Model

d. Assumption

b. Theory

4. A triple-beam balance measures which of the following?

a. Volume

b. Temperature

c. Mass

d. Luminous intensity

c. Mass

5. Which of the following prefixes indicates the largest multiple of the base unit?

a. Tera-

b. Giga-

c. Mega-

d. Pico

a. Tera-

1. Chemical C is a catalyst in the reaction between chemical A and chemical B. What is the

effect of chemical C?

a. Chemical C increases the rate of the reaction between A and B.

b. Chemical C decreases the rate of the reaction between A and B.

c. Chemical C initiates the reaction between A and B.

d. Chemical C converts A from a base to an acid

a. Chemical C increases the rate of the reaction between A and B.

2. Bromine has a mass number of 79.9. On average, how many neutrons are found in each

atom of bromine (Br)?

a. 35.00

b. 44.90

c. 89.00

d. 79.90

b. 44.90

3. On average, how many protons are found in each atom of zinc (Zn)?

a. 30.00

b. 35.00

c. 35.39

d. 65.39

a. 30.00

4. A scientific study has over 2,000 data points. Which of the following methods is most likely

to help the researcher gain usable information from the data?

a. Use statistical analysis to understand trends in the data.

b. Look at each individual data point and try to create a trend.

c. Eliminate a majority of the data so that the sample size is more manageable.

d. Inspect a small random subset of the data.

a. Use statistical analysis to understand trends in the data.

5. Which of the following statements regarding the movement of blood through the heart is

accurate?

a. Blood enters the heart through the pulmonary vein, into the right atrium, and through the

tricuspid valve to the right ventricle.

b. Once the right ventricle is full, blood exits into the pulmonary artery and then empties into

the left ventricle.

c. After traveling through the lungs, oxygenated blood enters the left atrium, then through the

mitral valve to the left ventricle.

d. Once the left ventricle is full, the tricuspid valve shuts, the ventricle contracts, and blood

exits through the aorta.

c. After traveling through the lungs, oxygenated blood enters the left atrium, then through the

mitral valve to the left ventricle.

6. Which of the statements below accurately list a component along with its function? (Select

all that apply.)

a. Collagen is a fatty compound that creates a padding between bones and other structures.

b. Hemoglobin is a protein in the blood that facilitates the carrying of oxygen.

c. Lymph is tissue that forms into nodes through which blood is filtered and cleaned.

d. An antigen is a substance that stimulates the production of antibodies

b. Hemoglobin is a protein in the blood that facilitates the carrying of oxygen.

d. An antigen is a substance that stimulates the production of antibodies

7. Which of the following statements correctly match a digestive system organ with its

function? (Select all that apply.)

a. The large intestine reabsorbs water into the body to form solid waste.

b. The duodenum is the part of the small intestine in which amino acids, fat, and sugar are

absorbed.

c. The liver produces bile, which aids digestion by emulsifying fats after they have passed

through the stomach.

d. The ileum functions to recover vitamins, salts, and nutrients from the chyme before it

passes into the large intestine.

e. The jejunum receives chyme from the stomach and is the site where most chemical

digestion occurs.

f. The gallbladder stores bile, which neutralizes stomach acid before it reaches the jejunum

a. The large intestine reabsorbs water into the body to form solid waste.

c. The liver produces bile, which aids digestion by emulsifying fats after they have passed

through the stomach.

d. The ileum functions to recover vitamins, salts, and nutrients from the chyme before it

passes into the large intestine.

8. Which statement best describes the arrangement of the elements listed in the table?

Element Atomic number Approximate

atomic weight

H 1 1

He 2 4

Li 3 7

Be 4 9

a. The elements are arranged by weight, with H being the heaviest atom and Be being the

lightest atom.

b. The elements are arranged by number of electrons, with H having the most electrons and Be

having the fewest electrons.

c. The elements are arranged by atomic radius, with H having the smallest radius and Be

having the largest radius.

d. The elements are arranged by number of protons, with H having the fewest protons and Be

having the most protons

d. The elements are arranged by number of protons, with H having the fewest protons and Be

having the most protons

9. Based on the following evidence, what is the most likely reason that spoiled food left out in

the open often contained fly larvae?

Many years ago, people believed that flies were created from spoiled food because

spoiled food that was left out in the open often contained fly larvae. To test this, a

scientist placed fresh food in a sealed container for an extended period of time. The

food spoiled, but no fly larvae were found in the food that was sealed.

a. The spoiled food, when mixed with air, produced fly larvae.

b. Since the food was left out in the open, flies would lay eggs in the food.

c. The fly larvae were present when the food was made.

d. People only imagined they saw fly larvae in the spoiled food.

b. Since the food was left out in the open, flies would lay eggs in the food

10. How do DNA and RNA function together in gene expression?

a. DNA carries genetic information from RNA to the cell cytoplasm.

b. RNA carries genetic information from DNA to the cell cytoplasm.

c. DNA and RNA carry genetic information from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm.

d. DNA and RNA do not interact within the cell

b. RNA carries genetic information from DNA to the cell cytoplasm.

11. Which statement most accurately compares and contrasts the structures of DNA and

RNA?

a. Both DNA and RNA have 4 nucleotide bases. Three of the bases are the same, but the fourth

base is thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA.

b. Both DNA and RNA have the same 4 nucleotide bases; however, the nucleotides bond

differently in the DNA when compared to RNA.

c. Both DNA and RNA have 6 nucleotide bases. DNA is single-stranded, and RNA is double-

stranded.

d. Both DNA and RNA have the same 6 nucleotide basis, but DNA has deoxyribose sugar, and

RNA has ribose sugar

a. Both DNA and RNA have 4 nucleotide bases. Three of the bases are the same, but the fourth

base is thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA.

12. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence:

Enzymes are ________ molecules that serve as _______ for certain biological reactions.

a. complex; suppressors

b. acidic; triggers

c. small; targets

d. large; catalysts

d. large; catalysts

13. What type of molecules are enzymes? a. Water molecules b. Protein molecules c. Lipid molecules d. Inorganic molecules

b. Protein molecules

14. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood back to the heart? a. Pulmonary vein b. Pulmonary artery c. Aorta d. Superior vena cava

a. Pulmonary vein

15. Mrs. Jones's class is conducting an experiment. They will substitute artificial sweetener for sugar in a cookie recipe to determine the effect on the overall color of the baked cookies. Which of the following should be included in the instructions for the experiment? a. When preparing the batch that includes artificial sweetener, 20% more water should be included since artificial sweetener requires more water to dissolve than sugar. b. The bake temperature should be decreased from 425° to 400° on the batch that uses artificial sweetener since the recipe indicates that sugar may take longer to bake. c. The batch with artificial sweetener should be baked on a stainless steel sheet, while the batch with sugar should be baked on a nonstick sheet, since sugar is stickier when dissolved. d. Ingredient proportions, bake time, bake temperature, and cookie sheet material should all be kept the same between the two batches

d. Ingredient proportions, bake time, bake temperature, and cookie sheet material should all be kept the same between the two batches of cookies to avoid confounding factors.

16. An atom has 5 protons, 5 neutrons, and 6 electrons. What is the electric charge of this atom? a. Neutral b. Positive c. Negative d. Undetermined

c. Negative

17. How many different types of tissue are there in the human body? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10

a. 4

18. Which of the following blood vessels carries blood with the lowest oxygen concentration? a. Aorta b. Radial artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Carotid artery

c. Pulmonary artery

19. A student is conducting an experiment using a ball that is attached to the end of a string, forming a pendulum. The student pulls the ball back so that it is at an angle to its resting position. As the student releases the ball, it swings forward and backward. The student measures the time it takes the ball to make one complete period. A period is defined as the time it takes the ball to swing forward and back again to its starting position. This is repeated using different string lengths.

The student formed the following hypothesis: "Lengthening the string of the pendulum increases the time it takes the ball to make one complete period."

Which of the following would be the best improvement of the student's hypothesis? a. Turn it into an "if/then" statement. b. Change "increases" to "will increase." c. Switch the order of the sentence so that the phrase about the period comes first. d. Rewrite the hypothesis to b

a. Turn it into an "if/then" statement.

20. What would be an appropriate control variable for this experiment? a. The period b. The length of the string c. The mass of the ball d. The color of the ball

c. The mass of the ball

21. Which of the following components of the human integumentary system is the deepest? a. Stratum basale b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Dermis

c. Hypodermis

22. Two nursing students will be completing a scientific experiment measuring the mass of chewed gum after one-minute chewing increments. Which lab equipment will the students most likely use? a. Triple beam balance b. Anemometer c. Hot plate d. Microscope

a. Triple beam balance

23. Which of the following is an example of the location and function of cartilage in the body? a. The dense connective tissue that makes up the majority of the structural skeleton b. The supportive pads that provide cushioning at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal column c. The connective structure made of fibrous collagen that connects muscles and bones, such as the connection of the patella to the quadriceps d. The layer beneath the skin and on the outside of internal organs that provides cushioning and protection

b. The supportive pads that provide cushioning at joints, such as between the vertebrae of the spinal column

24. Which of the following best describes a plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions? a. Coronal b. Transverse c. Oblique d. Median

b. Transverse

25. Which of the following is NOT part of the respiratory system? a. Ribs b. Trachea c. Diaphragm d. Alveoli

a. Ribs

26. A substance is only considered acidic if it has a pH less than what? a. 12 b. 9 c. 7 d. 4

c. 7

27. What function do ribosomes serve within the cell? a. Ribosomes are responsible for cell movement. b. Ribosomes aid in protein synthesis. c. Ribosomes help protect the cell from its environment. d. Ribosomes have enzymes that help with digestion.

b. Ribosomes aid in protein synthesis.

28. Which of the following best describes one of the roles of RNA? a. Manufacturing the proteins needed for DNA b. Creating the bonds between the elements that compose DNA c. Transmitting genetic code from DNA to assemble amino acids in the correct sequence d. Forming the identifiable double helix shape of DNA

c. Transmitting genetic code from DNA to assemble amino acids in the correct sequence

29. In the suburban neighborhood of Northwoods, there have been large populations of deer, and residents have complained about them eating flowers and garden plants. Which of the following would be the most logical explanation for the large increase in the deer population over the last two seasons? a. Food sources have become more plentiful in the area to the west of Northwoods. b. The population of natural predators in Northwoods has decreased. c. Deer have migrated into surrounding areas. d. There has been a recent increase in hunting licenses sold.

b. The population of natural predators in Northwoods has decreased.

30. Which word describes the allele for green eyes? a. Dominant b. Recessive c. Homozygous d. Heterozygous

b. Recessive

31. What is the probability that the offspring produced will have brown eyes? Round your answer to the nearest whole percentage. a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%

c. 75%

32. What type of chemical bond connects the oxygen and hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water? a. Metallic bond b. Hydrogen bond c. Ionic bond d. Covalent bond

d. Covalent bond

33. Which of the following substances is NOT a product of cellular respiration? a. Carbon dioxide b. Water c. Oxygen d. ATP

c. Oxygen

34. Which of the following statements correctly describes the function of a physiological structure? a. The trachea connects the throat and the stomach, encouraging food to follow this path through contractions. b. The esophagus is the cylindrical portion of the respiratory tract that joins the larynx with the lungs. c. The diaphragm is a muscle that controls the height of the thoracic cavity, decreasing the height on contraction and increasing the height on relaxation, causing expiration. d. The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food from entering the airway.

d. The epiglottis covers the trachea during swallowing, preventing food from entering the airway.

35. Which of the following choices best describes the location of the trachea in relation to the esophagus? a. Lateral b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Inferior

b. Anterior

36. Which of the following statements is true? a. Water is neutral and has a pH of 0. b. A water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. c. Water boils at 100 degrees Fahrenheit. d. The chemical formula for water is H2O2.

b. A water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom

37. The parathyroid glands are posterior to which of the following locations? a. The heart b. The lungs c. The thyroid gland d. The trachea

C. Thyroid gland

38. What function do genes serve in the relationship between parents and offspring? a. Genes enable hereditary information to be passed from parents to offspring. b. Genes enable only physical traits to be passed from parents to offspring. c. Genes enable environmental factors to affect parents and offspring. d. Genes aid in passing on information and can skip generations.

a. Genes enable hereditary information to be passed from parents to offspring

39. Which statement below correctly describes the movement of molecules in the body and/or in relation to the external environment? a. Osmosis is the movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration. b. Diffusion is the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood. c. Active transport is the transport of molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration, requiring energy. d. Osmosis is the movement of molecules in a solution from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.

b. Diffusion is the process in the lungs by which oxygen is transported from the air to the blood.

40. Which of the following describes a responsibility of the integumentary system? a. Distributing vital substances (such as nutrients) throughout the body b. Blocking pathogens that cause disease c. Sending leaked fluids from the cardiovascular system back to the blood vessels d. Producing and secreting hormones that influence sex characteristics

b. Blocking pathogens that cause disease

41. A triple beam balance would show which units of measurement? a. Liters b. Grams c. Meters d. Gallons

b. Grams

42. Which of the following body systems controls fluid loss, protects deep tissues, and synthesizes vitamin D? a. The skeletal system b. The muscular system c. The lymphatic system d. The integumentary system

d. The integumentary system

43. The process of changing from a liquid to a gas is called ________. a. Freezing b. Condensation c. Vaporization d. Sublimation

c. Vaporization

44. Which part of the cell provides energy for cellular functions? a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Mitochondria d. Cytoplasm

c. Mitochondria

45. Which of the following statements accurately characterizes the relationship between genes and chromosomes? a. Each gene contains multiple chromosomes. b. Each chromosome contains multiple genes. c. Genes and chromosomes are two words for the same thing. d. Genes and chromosomes are not the same thing but always occur in equal numbers.

. b. Each chromosome contains multiple genes.

46. Which of the following characteristics is part of a person's genotype? a. A person's brown eyes appearing hazel in the sunlight b. A mutated CFTR gene allele associated with cystic fibrosis c. Black hair that grows rapidly d. Being a fast runner

b. A mutated CFTR gene allele associated with cystic fibrosis

47. Which of the following quantities do catalysts alter to control the rate of a chemical reaction? a. Collision frequency b. Activation energy c. Equilibrium constant d. Reaction enthalpy

b. Activation energy

48. Which of the following best describes a function carried out by the circulatory system and the integumentary system working together? a. Removal of excess heat from body b. Hormonal influence on blood pressure c. Regulation of blood pressure and volume d. Development of blood cells within bone marrow

a. Removal of excess heat from body

49. Which of the following activities are consistent with the scientific method? (Select all that apply.)a. Observe the data, note potential outliers, and then analyze the results.b. Refuse to investigate a hypothesis if a prior study exists.c. Conduct an experiment and then formulate a hypothesis that fits the results.d. Communicate the results of an experiment that did not confirm the hypothesis.e. Develop a new hypothesis based on a conclusion from a previous experiment

a. Observe the data, note potential outliers, and then analyze the results

d. Communicate the results of an experiment that did not confirm the hypothesis.

e. Develop a new hypothesis based on a conclusion from a previous experiment

50. What lab equipment would most likely be used to precisely measure the volume of a liquid solution? a. Beaker b. Erlenmeyer flask c. Graduated cylinder d. Test tube

c. Graduated cylinder

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory system? a. Kidneys b. Heart c. Blood d. Blood vessels

a. Kidneys

2. What is the cellular function of cilia and flagella? a. Cilia and flagella are responsible for cell movement. b. Cilia and flagella synthesize proteins. c. Cilia and flagella help protect the cell from its environment. d. Cilia and flagella have enzymes that help with digestion.

a. Cilia and flagella are responsible for cell movement

4. Where does gas exchange occur in the human body? a. Alveoli b. Bronchi c. Larynx d. Pharynx

a. Alveoli

5. In your garden, you have noticed that the tomato plants on the north side of your house are growing better than those on the west side, and you have decided to figure out why. They are both planted in the same soil, and they are watered at the same time during the week. Over the course of a week, you begin to measure the amount of sunlight that hits each side of the house and determine that the north side receives more light because the sunlight is blocked on the west side by the house's shadow for much of the day. What is the name of the factor in your observations that affected the tomato plants' growth? a. The hypothesis b. The independent variable c. The dependent variable d. The conclusion

b. The independent variable

6. Which of the following organs is NOT primarily a part of the digestive system? a. Thyroid b. Stomach c. Intestines d. Pancreas

a. Thyroid

7. A vaccination is a way of acquiring which type of immunity? a. Passive natural immunity b. Active natural immunity c. Active artificial immunity d. Passive artificial immunity

c. Active artificial immunity

8. Which of the following stimulates adaptive immunity by presenting antigens to T cells? a. Cytokine b. Phagocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Platelets

b. Phagocytes

9. Which structure controls the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland? a. Hypothalamus b. Adrenal gland c. Testes d. Pancreas

a. Hypothalamus

10. According to the Punnett square, which selection includes all outcomes that would produce an offspring with male-pattern baldness? a. Possibility 1 b. Possibility 4 c. Possibilities 1, 2, and 3 d. Possibilities 2, 3, and 4

b. Possibility 4

11. According to the Punnett square, which selection includes all outcomes that would produce an offspring with a full head of hair? a. Possibility 1 b. Possibility 4 c. Possibilities 1, 2, and 3 d. Possibilities 2, 3, and 4

c. Possibilities 1, 2, and 3

12. Two isotopes of the same element have different numbers of: a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Nuclei

c. Neutrons

13. An atom has 2 protons, 4 neutrons, and 2 electrons. What is the mass number of this atom? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

c. 6

14. A researcher wants to investigate the relationship between family income and quality of medical care. For which of the following could the results of this investigation be directly applied? a. Determining specific medical exams to provide to low-income families b. Recommending which doctors high-income individuals should visit c. Identifying populations who do not receive quality medical care based on income level d. Calculating the risk low-income populations have of contracting specific viruses

c. Identifying populations who do not receive quality medical care based on income level

15. How do the hydrogen bonds in water affect its characteristics? a. Hydrogen bonds are so polar that they can attract non-polar molecules. b. Hydrogen bonds cause water to be denser when it is a solid than when it is a liquid. c. Hydrogen bonds cause water to have a high enough surface tension that some organisms can move across it. d. Hydrogen bonds cause water to be a poor solvent.

c. Hydrogen bonds cause water to have a high enough surface tension that some organisms can move across it

16. Which part of the cell serves as the control center for all cell activity? a. Nucleus b. Cell membrane c. Cytoplasm d. Mitochondria

a. Nucleus