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Ten-step enzymatically driven process that converts glucose into pyruvic acid.
Glycolysis
Involves sugar activation, sugar cleavage, and oxidation, and ATP formation.
Glycolysis
Glucose serves as the initial reactant.
Glycolysis
Occurs in the cytosol of a cell.
Glycolysis
Produces the CO2 involved during pyruvate (from glycolysis) oxidation.
Krebs cycle
Involves the removal of hydrogen electrons by coenzymes and CO2 production from the substrate molecule.
Krebs cycle
Where the hydrogens removed during the oxidation of food fuels are combined with O2.
Electron transport chain & oxidative phosphorylation
Contains ATP synthases, small rotary motors.
Electron transport chain & oxidative phosphorylation
Produces the most ATP
Electron transport chain & oxidative phosphorylation
Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
Electron transport chain & oxidative phosphorylation
Occurs via substrate-level phosphorylation.
Substrate-level phosphorylation
ATP formed by oxidative phosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation
Breakdown of glycogen to release glucose.
Glycogenolysis
Formation of glucose from proteins or fats.
Gluconeogenesis
Storage of glucose in the form of glycogen
Glycogenesis
Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid.
Glycolysis
Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids.
Lipogenesis
Splitting of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids.
Lipolysis
Conversion of fatty acids into acetyl groups.
Beta oxidation
Formation of ketone bodies.
Ketogenesis
Site at which most of the tubular reabsorption occurs.
Proximal convoluted tubule
Site of filtrate formation.
Glomerulus
Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
Collecting duct
T/F
1) Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation, and it occurs in the cytoplasm
False
Occurs in the mitochondria, not the cytoplasm
T/F
2) The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose-sparing
True
T/F
3) Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbs we ingest are mainly from animals.
False
Comes from plants, not animals
T/F
4) The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.
False
It cannot be made from the body and must come from the diet
T/F
5) The most abundant dietary lipids in the diets of most Americans are triglycerides.
True
T/F
6) There are no complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a complete protein.
False
animal products are complete proteins
T/F
7) The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine
False
nitrogen balance involves protein, not lipids
T/F
8) The amount of protein needed by each person is determined by the age, size, and metabolic rate of the person.
True
T/F
9) Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health.
False
vitamins are organic compounds, not inorganic
T/F
10) Cellular respiration is an anabolic process.
False
Its a Catabolic process, not an anabolic.
It breaks down molecules to release energy
T/F
11) Glycolysis is a series of six chemical steps; most take place in the mitochondria.
False
ten, not six
T/F
12) Glycogenesis begins when ATP levels are high, and glucose entering cells is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate and converted to its isomer, glucose-1-phosphate.
True
T/F
13) Athletes should ingest extra protein and simple sugars prior to competition to maximize performance.
False
Athletes need balanced carbs, not extra protein and simple sugars
T/F
14) For amino acids to be oxidized for energy, the amine group (NH2) must be removed.
True
T/F
15) Including the ATP from glycolysis, the cell gains 32 ATP molecules from aerobic metabolism of one glucose molecule.
False
Can get up to 38 ATP, not just 32
T/F
16) The body requires adequate supplies of only three minerals (calcium, sodium, chloride) and trace amounts of all others.
False
The body needs many minerals, not just calcium, sodium, and chloride
T/F
17) Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.
False
It is catabolic, not anabolic
T/F
18) For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose.
True
T/F
19) Triglycerides & cholesterol must be specially packaged for transport in the blood.
True
T/F
20) Normal body temperature range is 98.6-100°F, regardless of external temperature.
True
T/F
21) A deficit of potassium can cause rickets.
False
It is caused by vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, not potassium
T/F
22) It would not be healthy to eliminate all fats from your diet because they serve a useful purpose in maintaining the body.
True
T/F
23) The body's thermoregulatory centers are located in the thalamus.
False
located in the hypothalamus, not the thalamus
T/F
24) Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.
True
T/F
25) High levels of HDLs are considered good.
True
T/F
26) Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations.
False
Increase LDL, not HDL
T/F
27) Ghrelin, produced by the stomach, is a powerful appetite stimulant.
True
T/F
29) The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.
False
provide energy for cellular processes, not energy production within cells
T/F
1) If the GFR is too low, needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine.
False
low GFR leads to poor filtration, not quick passage through tubules
T/F
2) In the kidneys, the countercurrent mechanism involves the interaction between the flow of filtrate through the loop of Henle of the juxtamedullary nephrons (the countercurrent multiplier) and the flow of blood through the limbs of adjacent blood vessels (the countercurrent exchanger). This relationship establishes and maintains an osmotic gradient extending from the cortex through the depths of the medulla that allows the kidneys to vary urine concentration dramatically.
True
T/F
3) The ureter transports urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
True
T/F
4) Water reabsorption through the proximal convoluted tubule is termed obligatory water reabsorption, whereas water reabsorption through the distal convoluted tubule is termed facultative water reabsorption.
True
T/F
5) The position of the kidneys behind the peritoneal lining of the abdominal cavity is described by the term retroperitoneal.
True
T/F
6) The entire responsibility for urine formation lies with the nephron.
True
T/F
7) Urine is 95% water by volume.
True
T/F
8) The act of emptying the bladder is called voiding.
True
T/F
9) Glomerular filtration is an ATP-driven process.
False
Passive process, driven by pressure, not ATP
T/F
10) In the absence of hormones, the distal tubule and collecting ducts are relatively impermeable to water.
True
T/F
11) The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.
False
IS permeable
T/F
12) The urethra contains an internal sphincter of smooth muscle.
True
T/F
13) Angiotensin II is a substance made by the body to lower BP during stress.
False
Raises BP, not lowers
T/F
14) Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate.
True
T/F
15) Blood pressure in the renal glomerulus is lower than in most parts of the body in order to conserve body water.
False
BP in the glomerulus is higher, not lower
T/F
16) The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.
False
Connects to Bowman's capsule, not the collecting duct
T/F
17) Urea is partially recycled as some moves out of the collecting duct and back into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Its presence in the interstitium during this cycling process helps sodium to maintain the steep concentration gradient in the medullary portion of the kidney.
True
T/F
18) Incontinence is the inability to voluntarily control micturition.
True
T/F
19) The myogenic mechanism is a means of autoregulation. As the vascular smooth muscle is stretched by higher hydrostatic pressure, it responds by constricting to prevent glomerular blood pressure from reaching damaging levels.
True
T/F
20) An excessive urine output is called anuria.
False
Polyuria, not anuria
T/F
21) Tubular secretion of either hydrogen ion or bicarbonate is vital for maintaining pH homeostasis.
True
T/F
22) The trigone is so named because of the position of the ureteral orifices in relation to the urethra.
True
T/F
23) Atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits sodium reabsorption.
True
T/F
24) The macula densa cells are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in the urea content of the filtrate.
False
Changes in the Sodium chloride (NaCl), not urea
T/F
25) Blood in the urine may be a symptom of bladder cancer.
True
T/F
26) Obligatory water reabsorption involves the movement of water along an osmotic gradient.
True
1) The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) fat
B) glucose
C) acetyl CoA
D) cellulose
B) Glucose
2) Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?
A) ATP production
B) lipogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
D) conversion to a nucleic acid
E) glycogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
3) Dietary fats are important because they ________.
A) keep blood pressure normal
B) help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins
C) contribute significantly to the health of the skin
D) help prevent the common cold
B) help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins
4) Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________.
A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
B) helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs
C) helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation
D) enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered
A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
5) Which of the following statements best describes a complete protein source?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth
D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth
6) The term metabolism is best defined as ________.
A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories
C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
7) The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ________.
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
B) loss of organic molecules in urine
C) energy needed to make all organic molecules
D) loss of energy to perspiration
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
8) When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly________.
A) urea
B) ammonia
C) acetyl CoA
D) ketone bodies
A) urea
9) It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ________.
A) vitamins provide protection against the common cold
B) very few foods contain vitamins
C) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients
D) all vitamins are water soluble and are not stored by the body
C) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients
10) Like virtually all chemical reactions in the body, redox (oxidation-reduction) reactions are
catalyzed by enzymes? For redox reactions those enzymes are _________& _________.
A) dehydrogenases and oxidases
B) kinases and phosphorylases
C) phosphatases and kinases
D) synthetases and lipases
A) dehydrogenases and oxidases
11) Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?
A) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation
B) gluconeogenesis, Krebs cycle, lipolysis, oxidative phosphorylation
C) lipolysis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation, oxidative phosphorylation
D) glycogenesis, lipogenesis, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation
A) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation
12) Anabolism includes reactions in which ________.
A) carbohydrate utilization is unaffected
B) larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones
C) structural proteins are used as a potential energy source
D) ketone bodies are formed
B) larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones
13) Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.
A) causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies
B) builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state
C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
D) elevates glucagon levels
C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
14) The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________.
A) determine the amount of heat needed by the human body
B) provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals
C) efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
15) The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) fat utilization
C) lipogenesis
D) lipolysis
D) lipolysis
16) Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) substrate-level phosphorylation
C) oxidation-reduction reactions
D) oxidation reactions
A) oxidative phosphorylation
17) Lipogenesis occurs when ________.
A) there is a shortage of fatty acids
B) glucose levels drop slightly
C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high
18) Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________.
A) liver B) muscles C) kidneys D) blood
A) liver
19) Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ________.
A) transferred to acetyl CoA
B) converted to urea
C) transferred to a keto acid
D) converted to ammonia
C) transferred to a keto acid
20) Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.
A) postabsorptive state
B) absorptive (fed) state
C) starvation period
D) period when the metabolic rate is lowest
B) absorptive (fed) state
21) Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center?
A) release of epinephrine
B) sympathetic sweat gland activation
C) increase in ADH production
D) vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
A) release of epinephrine
22) Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.
A) glycogen is broken down to release glucose
B) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors
C) glycogen is formed
D) glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water
B) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors
23) Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________.
A) conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
B) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid
C) conversion of pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide and water
D) formation of sugar
B) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid