BSF Quizzes 1-3 (Midterm)

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75 Terms

1
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The dorsal root ganglion is an example of which type of neuron?

bipolar

unipolar

pseudounipolar

pseudounipolar

2
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In which lobe is the calcarine sulcus found?

occipital

parietal

frontal

insula

temporal

occipital

3
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What separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

calcarine sulcus

inferior temporal sulcus

central sulcus

lateral fissure

postcentral sulcus

lateral fissure

4
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Off of which major vessel do the pointe arteries arise?

middle cerebral artery

vertebral artery

basilar artery

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

internal carotid artery

basilar artery

5
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Where is the primary motor cortex located?

in the temporal lobe

behind the central sulcus

in the parietal lobe

in front of the central sulcus

in front of the central sulcus

6
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The neural plate is a longitudinal thickening of which embryological layer?

ectoderm

endoderm

mesoderm

ectoderm

7
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From which area of the somite does the skull form?

myotome

sclerotome

dermatome

sclerotome

8
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During brain formation, in which enlargement will the cerebral aqueduct eventually form?

forebrain

midbrain

hindbrain

midbrain

9
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What is the name of the structure that samples environments in neuron development and migration?

growth cone

somite

presynaptic terminal

mesencephalon

growth cone

10
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At approximately what age does myelination occur in the motor tracts of the spinal cord?

3 years old

2 years old

1 month

5 years old

18 months

2 years

11
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Where is the primary olfactory lobe located?

insula

pituitary

corpus callosum

hippocampus

hypothalamus

insula

12
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Circumventricular organs are specialized brain regions where the blood-brain barrier is interrupted. What is the name of the only paired circumventricular organ that helps detect circulating toxins that cause vomiting?

area postrema

neurohypophysis

pineal gland

subfornical organ

area postrema

13
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Once the neuropore closes, three basic enlargements of the embryo's brain can be detected. Which of these enlargements contains the telencephalon?

hindbrain

forebrain

midbrain

forebrain

14
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Where does cerebrospinal fluid absorption occur?

cerebral aqueduct

locus coeruleus

arachnoid granulations

choroid plexus

arachnoid granulations

15
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A 54 year old male, with a past medical history of alcoholism, 1.5 pack-per-day smoking history, and hypertension, presents to the emergency department with sensory loss on the left side of his face and right-sided hemiparesis. He also complains of vertigo. Based on the clinical presentation, the patient suffered a thrombotic stroke in which arterial distribution?

middle cerebral artery

posterior cerebral artery

anterior cerebral artery

vertebrobasilar arteries

vertebrobasilar arteries

16
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Which space contains bridging veins?

subdural space

subarachnoid space

epidural space

subdural space

17
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Hours after undergoing a total knee replacement, a patient suddenly develops right-sided hemiplegia. In order to diagnosis a stroke, the patient needs to be sent emergently for what?

CT scan

PET scan

MRI

CT scan

18
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A 32 year old male hits a tree while skiing in Vail. Besides fracturing his femur, he suffers a head injury which is apparent by the damage to his helmet. While awaiting surgical repair of his broken femur, he loses consciousness. A CT scan demonstrates a brain bleed that is crescent-shaped. What is the most likely diagnosis?

subdural hematoma

epidural hematoma

post-concussive syndrome

epidural hematoma

19
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What is the most common location of a thrombotic stroke?

anterior cerebral artery

basilar artery

posterior cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

middle cerebral artery

20
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What is the most common location of an intracerebral hemorrhage?

pons

basal ganglia

thalamus

cerebellum

basal ganglia

21
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A 75 year old male presents to the neurologist with a step-wise progression of stroke symptoms over the past year. The physician suspects the patient suffered from a series of lacunar infarcts. Which one of the patient's comorbidities most likely caused the lacunar infarcts?

diet-controlled diabetes

Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)

pulmonary emboli

hypertension

glaucoma

hypertension

22
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A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department with the "worst headache" of her life. The physician sends the patient for a CT angiogram to evaluate the vasculature in the brain and discovers she has a subarachnoid bleed. What is the most likely cause of her brain bleed?

glioblastoma eroded into the anterior cerebral artery

arteriovenous malformation

rupture of berry aneurysm

traumatic brain injury

embolic stroke from birth control use

rupture of berry aneurysm

23
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At the neuromuscular junction, which neurotransmitter is released from the synaptic terminal?

acetylcholine

norepinephrine

epinephrine

dopamine serotonin

acetylcholine

24
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What is the connective tissue called that surrounds individual fascicles within nerves?

epineurium

endoneurium

perineurium

perineurium

25
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From which spinal cord segments does the brachial plexus arise?

T2-L4

L1-L4

C4-C8

C5-T1

L4-S4

C5-T1

26
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Regarding the nociceptive fibers of the trigeminal nerve, to where do the second order neurons project after the spinal trigeminal nucleus?

reticular formation

mesencephalic nucleus of midbrain

somatosensory cortex

cerebellum

VPM of the thalamus

VPM of the thalamus

27
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Which nucleus is ultimately responsible for the function of the salivary, nasal, and lacrimal glands?

solitary nucleus

raphe nuclei

VPM of the thalamus

nucleus ambiguus

superior salivatory nucleus

superior salivatory nuclus

28
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A 64 year old male, with a past medical history of uncontrolled hypertension, presents with midbrain stroke. Which of the following nuclei may be injured as a result of the stroke?

inferior salivatory nucleus

abducens nucleus

nucleus of the solitary tract

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

nucleus ambiguus

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

29
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Which cerebellar peduncle contains both afferent and efferent axons?

superior cerebellar peduncle

inferior cerebellar peduncle

middle cerebellar peduncle

inferior cerebellar peduncle

30
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Located in the ventral midbrain, which structure regulates subconscious motor control?

superior colliculus

fasciculata cuneatus

substantia nigra

inferior colliculus

red nucleus

substantia nigra

31
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Which cranial nerves traverse the internal acoustic meatus?

CN VII and CN CIII

CN IX, CN X, and CN XI

CN V, CN VI, and CN VII

CN V and CN VII

CN XII

CN VII and CN VIII

32
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A patient is diagnosed with dysdiadochokinesia. A lesion in which area of the central nervous system caused this disorder?

parietal lobe

medulla oblongata

cerebellum

substantia nigra

frontal lobe

cerebellum

33
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Which two cranial nerves enter the forebrain directly?

II AND III

IV AND VI

V AND VII

I AND II

I AND II

34
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Which structure is considered a selective filter for the cerebral cortex? It is composed of two large, egg-shaped collections of nuclei located superior to the brainstem?

thalamus

globus pallidus

hypothalamus

cerebellum

putamen

thalamus

35
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Which of the following convey information regarding movement errors to the cerebellum?

stellate cells

climbing fibers

mossy fibers

parallel fibers

climbing fibers

36
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Which of the cerebellar peduncles contains mostly afferent pathways?

inferior cerebellar peduncle

middle cerebellar peduncle

superior cerebellar peduncle

middle cerebellar peduncle

37
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From where do climbing fibers originate?

superior olive

inferior olive

vermis

vestibulocerebellum

inferior olive

38
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Regarding cerebellar pathology, lesions in which area lead to truncal ataxia?

paravermal area

spinocerebellum

flocculonodular lobe

lateral cerebellar area

flocculonodular lobe

39
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On which cerebellar hemisphere does a cerebral hemisphere exert its influence?

ipsilateral cerebellar hemisphere

contralateral cerebellar hemisphere

contralateral cerebellar hemisphere

40
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A 56 year old male, with a history of hypertension, presents to the emergency department with the following complaints: visual field defects, sensory abnormalities and behavioral changes. Based on these symptoms, which organ has most likely been damaged?

corpus callosum

cerebellum

basal ganglia

medulla oblongata

thalamus

thalamus

41
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Within the thalamus, where are the reticular nuclei located?

dorsal surface

medial surface

lateral surface

within the intramedullary lamina

lateral surface

42
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A patient is found to have nystagmus. Which area of the cerebellum may be injured?

cerebrocerebellum

vestibulocerebellum

spinocerebellum

vestibulocerebellum

43
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With which function is the pulvinar of the thalamus associated?

taste

touch

vision

smell

hearing

vision

44
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What is the term for spontaneous contraction of a single muscle fiber that is only visible with needle EMG?

tetany

fibrillation

fasciculation

hypertonicity

spasticity

fibrillation

45
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Like most of the nervous system, in the spinal cord, the motor neuron pools are arranged topographically. Where are the motor neuron pools that are responsible for the distal parts of the extremities, and therefore, skilled behavior?

medial

lateral

lateral

46
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Just prior to utilizing the biceps to pull on a door handle, the gastrocnemius fires in an anticipatory postural response. This is an example of which type of response?

positive feedback loop

negative feedback loop

crossed-extension reflex

feed-forward motor control

polysynaptic reflex

feed-forward motor control

47
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Regarding muscle spindle fibers, which afferents transmit information about the static position of limbs?

group II afferents

group la afferents

group Ib afferents

group II afferents

48
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If high gain is used to describe the level of gamma motor neuron activity, how much stretch is occurring to generate given amount of tension?

change in length

small amount

large amount

small amount

49
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Lyme disease can cause facial muscle paralysis similar to Bell's palsy. Which cranial nerve is implicated in both disease processes?

CN V

CN VII

CN X

CN XI

CN VIII

CN VII

50
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Which part of the spinocerebellum is concerned with movements of distal muscles?

vermis

paramedian spinocerebellum

paramedian spinocerebellum

51
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At the resting membrane potential, what is the relationship between potassium and sodium membrane permeability?

PNa > Pk

PNa = Pk

indeterminate

PNa < Pk

PNa < Pk

52
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In which autoimmune disease, do antibodies attack postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction?

dysdiadochokinesia

dysmetria

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

myasthenia gravis

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

myasthenia gravis

53
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Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors have been used in the treatment of Alzheimer's. The goal of these medications is to provide symptomatic relief by compensating for the loss neurons. While taking these medications, what happens to the levels of acetylcholine in central nervous system synapses?

no change

decrease

increase

increase

54
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What is the mechanism of action of strychnine?

stimulates K+ channels

blocks glycine receptors

blocks Na+ channels

blocks GABA receptors

stimulates ACH receptors

blocks glycine receptors

55
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Alpha-latrotoxin is particularly poisonous. Upon selectively binding to the presynaptic terminals, it causes a massive release of neurotransmitters into the synapse. What harbors this latrotoxin?

brown recluse spider

black widow spider

copper head snake

puffer fish

synthetically made for bioterrorism

black widow spider

56
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A 74 year old male, with a past medical history of hyperlipidemia and Alzheimer's disease, presents to a memory clinic for evaluation. His partner reports that the client has been having more difficulty with his memory. He has trouble remembering the way home from the local grocery store or post office. He also withdraws from challenging situations. He is capable of dressing himself, however. He also still safely cooks simple meals. Although the client always handled the household's bills and finances, he can no longer handle these tasks without frustration. During your evaluation, you note the client is oriented to person, place and date. Based on the evaluation, in which Reisberg Stage of Alzheimer's disease is this client living?

stage 4

stage 6

stage 2

stage 3

stage 5

stage 4

57
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Which of the following neurons would have the greatest speed of passive current flow?

small diameter axon; unmyelinated

large diameter axon; unmyelinated

small diameter axon; myelinated

large diameter axon; myelinated

large diameter axon; myelinated

58
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What is the relationship between the amplitude of the action potential and the magnitude of the current used to evoke it?

independent

direct relationship

inverse relationship

independent

59
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In which direction do ions move through ion channels?

either direction

in the direction of their concentration gradients

against their concentration gradients

in the direction of their concentration gradients

60
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Which equation considers the permeability of a membrane to a given ion?

Goldman Equation

Ohm's Law

modified Nernst Equation

Nernst Equation

Goldman Equation

61
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During the generation of an action potential, which ion is ultimately responsible for depolarization?

sodium

chloride

calcium

potassium

sodium

62
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During which phase of the action potential is the neuronal membrane impermeable to sodium?

overshoot phase

undershoot phase

rising phase

undershoot phase

63
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What is the mechanism of action of tetrodotoxin?

binds calcium

blocks potassium currents

blocks sodium currents

stimulates synthesis of ATP

stimulates G-proteins

blocks sodium currents

64
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What is the reciprocal of membrane resistance?

magnitude

threshold

equilibrium potential

current

conductance

conductance

65
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What is the largest and most diverse class of voltage-gated ion channels?

sodium

potassium

calcium

magnesium

chloride

potassium

66
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After declarative memories are stored in the cortex, a brain injury occurs that destroys the medial temporal lobe and the hippocampus. Can the patient recall the memories after the injury?

yes

no way to tell

no

yes

67
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Which channelopathy is responsible for febrile seizures?

Na+ channel mutations

Ca++ channel mutations

K+ channel mutations

Na+ channel mutations

68
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In which type of seizure is there a brief loss of consciousness without motor manifestations?

absence seizure

tonic seizure

grand mal seizure

myoclonic seizure

absence seizure

69
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Which type of memory is limited in duration and capacity and is, by definition, the ability to hold and manipulate information in the mind for only seconds to minutes in pursuit of a particular goal?

immediate memory

long-term memory

working memory

working memory

70
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What is the most common form of dementia in older adults?

Parkinson's disease

Lewy Body disease

drug-induced delirium

Alzheimer's disease

Wernicke-Korsakoff

Alzheimer's disease

71
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What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter?

glutamate

GABA

glycine

norepinephrine

ATP

GABA

72
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Where is the major long-term "storage-area" for declarative memory?

cerebellum

frontal cortex

amygdala

parietal cortex

thalamus

frontal cortex

73
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An EMG study demonstrates fibrillation and positive sharp waves. Which tissue was damaged?

muscle

nerve

nerve

74
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What are the most commonly observed deficits following a brain injury?

memory and attention deficits

perception deficits and psychiatric sequalae

attention and perception deficits

verbal impairment and memory deficits

memory and attention deficits

75
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A 17 year old male sustains a traumatic brain injury as an unrestrained passenger in a high speed motor vehicle accident. Shortly after arriving in the ER trauma bay, he starts convulsing. The clinician explains to the patient's parents that he suffered a great deal of brain damage due to the excessive release of an excitatory compound during the accident. What neurotransmitter most likely caused this patient's excitotoxic seizure?

epinephrine

glutamate

histamine

GABA

acetylcholine

glutamate