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The dorsal root ganglion is an example of which type of neuron?
bipolar
unipolar
pseudounipolar
pseudounipolar
In which lobe is the calcarine sulcus found?
occipital
parietal
frontal
insula
temporal
occipital
What separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?
calcarine sulcus
inferior temporal sulcus
central sulcus
lateral fissure
postcentral sulcus
lateral fissure
Off of which major vessel do the pointe arteries arise?
middle cerebral artery
vertebral artery
basilar artery
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
internal carotid artery
basilar artery
Where is the primary motor cortex located?
in the temporal lobe
behind the central sulcus
in the parietal lobe
in front of the central sulcus
in front of the central sulcus
The neural plate is a longitudinal thickening of which embryological layer?
ectoderm
endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm
From which area of the somite does the skull form?
myotome
sclerotome
dermatome
sclerotome
During brain formation, in which enlargement will the cerebral aqueduct eventually form?
forebrain
midbrain
hindbrain
midbrain
What is the name of the structure that samples environments in neuron development and migration?
growth cone
somite
presynaptic terminal
mesencephalon
growth cone
At approximately what age does myelination occur in the motor tracts of the spinal cord?
3 years old
2 years old
1 month
5 years old
18 months
2 years
Where is the primary olfactory lobe located?
insula
pituitary
corpus callosum
hippocampus
hypothalamus
insula
Circumventricular organs are specialized brain regions where the blood-brain barrier is interrupted. What is the name of the only paired circumventricular organ that helps detect circulating toxins that cause vomiting?
area postrema
neurohypophysis
pineal gland
subfornical organ
area postrema
Once the neuropore closes, three basic enlargements of the embryo's brain can be detected. Which of these enlargements contains the telencephalon?
hindbrain
forebrain
midbrain
forebrain
Where does cerebrospinal fluid absorption occur?
cerebral aqueduct
locus coeruleus
arachnoid granulations
choroid plexus
arachnoid granulations
A 54 year old male, with a past medical history of alcoholism, 1.5 pack-per-day smoking history, and hypertension, presents to the emergency department with sensory loss on the left side of his face and right-sided hemiparesis. He also complains of vertigo. Based on the clinical presentation, the patient suffered a thrombotic stroke in which arterial distribution?
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
anterior cerebral artery
vertebrobasilar arteries
vertebrobasilar arteries
Which space contains bridging veins?
subdural space
subarachnoid space
epidural space
subdural space
Hours after undergoing a total knee replacement, a patient suddenly develops right-sided hemiplegia. In order to diagnosis a stroke, the patient needs to be sent emergently for what?
CT scan
PET scan
MRI
CT scan
A 32 year old male hits a tree while skiing in Vail. Besides fracturing his femur, he suffers a head injury which is apparent by the damage to his helmet. While awaiting surgical repair of his broken femur, he loses consciousness. A CT scan demonstrates a brain bleed that is crescent-shaped. What is the most likely diagnosis?
subdural hematoma
epidural hematoma
post-concussive syndrome
epidural hematoma
What is the most common location of a thrombotic stroke?
anterior cerebral artery
basilar artery
posterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
What is the most common location of an intracerebral hemorrhage?
pons
basal ganglia
thalamus
cerebellum
basal ganglia
A 75 year old male presents to the neurologist with a step-wise progression of stroke symptoms over the past year. The physician suspects the patient suffered from a series of lacunar infarcts. Which one of the patient's comorbidities most likely caused the lacunar infarcts?
diet-controlled diabetes
Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)
pulmonary emboli
hypertension
glaucoma
hypertension
A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department with the "worst headache" of her life. The physician sends the patient for a CT angiogram to evaluate the vasculature in the brain and discovers she has a subarachnoid bleed. What is the most likely cause of her brain bleed?
glioblastoma eroded into the anterior cerebral artery
arteriovenous malformation
rupture of berry aneurysm
traumatic brain injury
embolic stroke from birth control use
rupture of berry aneurysm
At the neuromuscular junction, which neurotransmitter is released from the synaptic terminal?
acetylcholine
norepinephrine
epinephrine
dopamine serotonin
acetylcholine
What is the connective tissue called that surrounds individual fascicles within nerves?
epineurium
endoneurium
perineurium
perineurium
From which spinal cord segments does the brachial plexus arise?
T2-L4
L1-L4
C4-C8
C5-T1
L4-S4
C5-T1
Regarding the nociceptive fibers of the trigeminal nerve, to where do the second order neurons project after the spinal trigeminal nucleus?
reticular formation
mesencephalic nucleus of midbrain
somatosensory cortex
cerebellum
VPM of the thalamus
VPM of the thalamus
Which nucleus is ultimately responsible for the function of the salivary, nasal, and lacrimal glands?
solitary nucleus
raphe nuclei
VPM of the thalamus
nucleus ambiguus
superior salivatory nucleus
superior salivatory nuclus
A 64 year old male, with a past medical history of uncontrolled hypertension, presents with midbrain stroke. Which of the following nuclei may be injured as a result of the stroke?
inferior salivatory nucleus
abducens nucleus
nucleus of the solitary tract
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
nucleus ambiguus
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
Which cerebellar peduncle contains both afferent and efferent axons?
superior cerebellar peduncle
inferior cerebellar peduncle
middle cerebellar peduncle
inferior cerebellar peduncle
Located in the ventral midbrain, which structure regulates subconscious motor control?
superior colliculus
fasciculata cuneatus
substantia nigra
inferior colliculus
red nucleus
substantia nigra
Which cranial nerves traverse the internal acoustic meatus?
CN VII and CN CIII
CN IX, CN X, and CN XI
CN V, CN VI, and CN VII
CN V and CN VII
CN XII
CN VII and CN VIII
A patient is diagnosed with dysdiadochokinesia. A lesion in which area of the central nervous system caused this disorder?
parietal lobe
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
substantia nigra
frontal lobe
cerebellum
Which two cranial nerves enter the forebrain directly?
II AND III
IV AND VI
V AND VII
I AND II
I AND II
Which structure is considered a selective filter for the cerebral cortex? It is composed of two large, egg-shaped collections of nuclei located superior to the brainstem?
thalamus
globus pallidus
hypothalamus
cerebellum
putamen
thalamus
Which of the following convey information regarding movement errors to the cerebellum?
stellate cells
climbing fibers
mossy fibers
parallel fibers
climbing fibers
Which of the cerebellar peduncles contains mostly afferent pathways?
inferior cerebellar peduncle
middle cerebellar peduncle
superior cerebellar peduncle
middle cerebellar peduncle
From where do climbing fibers originate?
superior olive
inferior olive
vermis
vestibulocerebellum
inferior olive
Regarding cerebellar pathology, lesions in which area lead to truncal ataxia?
paravermal area
spinocerebellum
flocculonodular lobe
lateral cerebellar area
flocculonodular lobe
On which cerebellar hemisphere does a cerebral hemisphere exert its influence?
ipsilateral cerebellar hemisphere
contralateral cerebellar hemisphere
contralateral cerebellar hemisphere
A 56 year old male, with a history of hypertension, presents to the emergency department with the following complaints: visual field defects, sensory abnormalities and behavioral changes. Based on these symptoms, which organ has most likely been damaged?
corpus callosum
cerebellum
basal ganglia
medulla oblongata
thalamus
thalamus
Within the thalamus, where are the reticular nuclei located?
dorsal surface
medial surface
lateral surface
within the intramedullary lamina
lateral surface
A patient is found to have nystagmus. Which area of the cerebellum may be injured?
cerebrocerebellum
vestibulocerebellum
spinocerebellum
vestibulocerebellum
With which function is the pulvinar of the thalamus associated?
taste
touch
vision
smell
hearing
vision
What is the term for spontaneous contraction of a single muscle fiber that is only visible with needle EMG?
tetany
fibrillation
fasciculation
hypertonicity
spasticity
fibrillation
Like most of the nervous system, in the spinal cord, the motor neuron pools are arranged topographically. Where are the motor neuron pools that are responsible for the distal parts of the extremities, and therefore, skilled behavior?
medial
lateral
lateral
Just prior to utilizing the biceps to pull on a door handle, the gastrocnemius fires in an anticipatory postural response. This is an example of which type of response?
positive feedback loop
negative feedback loop
crossed-extension reflex
feed-forward motor control
polysynaptic reflex
feed-forward motor control
Regarding muscle spindle fibers, which afferents transmit information about the static position of limbs?
group II afferents
group la afferents
group Ib afferents
group II afferents
If high gain is used to describe the level of gamma motor neuron activity, how much stretch is occurring to generate given amount of tension?
change in length
small amount
large amount
small amount
Lyme disease can cause facial muscle paralysis similar to Bell's palsy. Which cranial nerve is implicated in both disease processes?
CN V
CN VII
CN X
CN XI
CN VIII
CN VII
Which part of the spinocerebellum is concerned with movements of distal muscles?
vermis
paramedian spinocerebellum
paramedian spinocerebellum
At the resting membrane potential, what is the relationship between potassium and sodium membrane permeability?
PNa > Pk
PNa = Pk
indeterminate
PNa < Pk
PNa < Pk
In which autoimmune disease, do antibodies attack postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
dysdiadochokinesia
dysmetria
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
myasthenia gravis
Kluver-Bucy syndrome
myasthenia gravis
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors have been used in the treatment of Alzheimer's. The goal of these medications is to provide symptomatic relief by compensating for the loss neurons. While taking these medications, what happens to the levels of acetylcholine in central nervous system synapses?
no change
decrease
increase
increase
What is the mechanism of action of strychnine?
stimulates K+ channels
blocks glycine receptors
blocks Na+ channels
blocks GABA receptors
stimulates ACH receptors
blocks glycine receptors
Alpha-latrotoxin is particularly poisonous. Upon selectively binding to the presynaptic terminals, it causes a massive release of neurotransmitters into the synapse. What harbors this latrotoxin?
brown recluse spider
black widow spider
copper head snake
puffer fish
synthetically made for bioterrorism
black widow spider
A 74 year old male, with a past medical history of hyperlipidemia and Alzheimer's disease, presents to a memory clinic for evaluation. His partner reports that the client has been having more difficulty with his memory. He has trouble remembering the way home from the local grocery store or post office. He also withdraws from challenging situations. He is capable of dressing himself, however. He also still safely cooks simple meals. Although the client always handled the household's bills and finances, he can no longer handle these tasks without frustration. During your evaluation, you note the client is oriented to person, place and date. Based on the evaluation, in which Reisberg Stage of Alzheimer's disease is this client living?
stage 4
stage 6
stage 2
stage 3
stage 5
stage 4
Which of the following neurons would have the greatest speed of passive current flow?
small diameter axon; unmyelinated
large diameter axon; unmyelinated
small diameter axon; myelinated
large diameter axon; myelinated
large diameter axon; myelinated
What is the relationship between the amplitude of the action potential and the magnitude of the current used to evoke it?
independent
direct relationship
inverse relationship
independent
In which direction do ions move through ion channels?
either direction
in the direction of their concentration gradients
against their concentration gradients
in the direction of their concentration gradients
Which equation considers the permeability of a membrane to a given ion?
Goldman Equation
Ohm's Law
modified Nernst Equation
Nernst Equation
Goldman Equation
During the generation of an action potential, which ion is ultimately responsible for depolarization?
sodium
chloride
calcium
potassium
sodium
During which phase of the action potential is the neuronal membrane impermeable to sodium?
overshoot phase
undershoot phase
rising phase
undershoot phase
What is the mechanism of action of tetrodotoxin?
binds calcium
blocks potassium currents
blocks sodium currents
stimulates synthesis of ATP
stimulates G-proteins
blocks sodium currents
What is the reciprocal of membrane resistance?
magnitude
threshold
equilibrium potential
current
conductance
conductance
What is the largest and most diverse class of voltage-gated ion channels?
sodium
potassium
calcium
magnesium
chloride
potassium
After declarative memories are stored in the cortex, a brain injury occurs that destroys the medial temporal lobe and the hippocampus. Can the patient recall the memories after the injury?
yes
no way to tell
no
yes
Which channelopathy is responsible for febrile seizures?
Na+ channel mutations
Ca++ channel mutations
K+ channel mutations
Na+ channel mutations
In which type of seizure is there a brief loss of consciousness without motor manifestations?
absence seizure
tonic seizure
grand mal seizure
myoclonic seizure
absence seizure
Which type of memory is limited in duration and capacity and is, by definition, the ability to hold and manipulate information in the mind for only seconds to minutes in pursuit of a particular goal?
immediate memory
long-term memory
working memory
working memory
What is the most common form of dementia in older adults?
Parkinson's disease
Lewy Body disease
drug-induced delirium
Alzheimer's disease
Wernicke-Korsakoff
Alzheimer's disease
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter?
glutamate
GABA
glycine
norepinephrine
ATP
GABA
Where is the major long-term "storage-area" for declarative memory?
cerebellum
frontal cortex
amygdala
parietal cortex
thalamus
frontal cortex
An EMG study demonstrates fibrillation and positive sharp waves. Which tissue was damaged?
muscle
nerve
nerve
What are the most commonly observed deficits following a brain injury?
memory and attention deficits
perception deficits and psychiatric sequalae
attention and perception deficits
verbal impairment and memory deficits
memory and attention deficits
A 17 year old male sustains a traumatic brain injury as an unrestrained passenger in a high speed motor vehicle accident. Shortly after arriving in the ER trauma bay, he starts convulsing. The clinician explains to the patient's parents that he suffered a great deal of brain damage due to the excessive release of an excitatory compound during the accident. What neurotransmitter most likely caused this patient's excitotoxic seizure?
epinephrine
glutamate
histamine
GABA
acetylcholine
glutamate