ULTIMATE Pharmacology Study guide (YOU GOT THIS!!)

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Antibiotics Anti-Inflammatories Glucocorticoids RA Gout Anticoagulants Parkinson's Disease AEDs Antispasmodics Depression Anxiety Insomnia Psychiatric Disorders Laxatives Men and Women's Health Hemodynamics

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1
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Name four penicillins

  1. Piperacillin

  2. Ticarcillin

  3. Amoxicillin

  4. Ampicillin

2
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Penicillin is used mostly for Gram ____ bacteria, unless there is an extended spectrum.

positive

3
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When should penicillin be given?

On an empty stomach. Either:

  1. 1 hour before eating

  2. 2 hours after eating

4
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Penicillin is the safest known antibiotic, but it can combat the effects of _____ _____

birth control

5
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What are the five most common allergic reactions to penicillin?

  1. Rash

  2. Hives

  3. Wheezing

  4. SOB

  5. Increased HR

6
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Penicillin is used for ______, ______ and these four types of infections:

Pneumonia; Meningitis

  1. Joint

  2. Blood

  3. Valve

  4. Stomach

7
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Name five Macrolides (CADET)

  1. Erythromycin

  2. Azithromycin (Zithromax)

  3. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

  4. Dirithromycin (Dynabec)

  5. Troleandomycin (Tao)

8
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A macrolide is an alternative to _____ for patients who are allergic to _____.

penicillin; penicillins

9
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Macrolides are contraindicated in patients with what kind of disease?

hepatic disease

10
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What is the most common adverse reaction to macrolides?

Increased GI motility (DIARRHEA)

11
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A macrolide is a ____ spectrum antibiotic that inhibits bacterial ______ _______

broad; protein synthesis

12
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Are macrolides big or small molecules?

BIG BOYS

13
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Which antibiotics interact with P450 in the liver?

Macrolides

14
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Macrolides have good compliance 1 or 2x a day. They are used for ______ infections, _____ ______, and uncomplicated ____ infections.

respiratory; otitis media; skin

15
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Name five Aminoglycosides

  1. Amikacin (Amikin)

  2. Gentamicin (Gentak, Garamycin)

  3. Neomycin (Neomycin Sulfate)

  4. Kanamycin

  5. Tobramycin (Tobrex)

16
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Aminoglycosides are _____ spectrum drugs that target aerobic Gram ___ Bacilli bacteria by disrupting ____ _____.

Narrow; Negative; protein synthesis

17
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Concentration dependent aminoglycosides lead to ____ and _____

peaks; troughs

18
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How are Aminoglycosides administered?

IV (not absorbed from GI tract)

19
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Aminoglycosides are not used for meningitis or Spinal cord related infections because they can’t enter the ____. They are also rapidly excreted by the ____

CSF; kidneys

20
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What are two adverse reactions of Aminoglycosides?

  1. Ototoxicity (impairs both hearing and balance)

  2. Nephrotoxicity (Fries renal tubules) (related to cumulative dose)

21
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When aminoglycosides are at risk for causing nephrotoxicity, what should be measured?

Peaks and troughs (to measure highest and lowest therapeutic effects when drug is in blood)

22
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Aminoglycosides are rarely prescribed as monotherapy. Renal labs should be checked _____ (before/ after) administration because they bind tightly to renal tissue.

BEFORE

23
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Nalidixic acid (NegGram), Cinoxacin (Cinobac), Ciprofloxin (Cipro), Moxifloxin (Avelox), and Tovafloxacin (Trovan) are all

Fluroquinolones

24
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Fluroquinolones are ____ spectrum drugs but are used for mostly gram ______ bacteria

broad; negative

25
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What do fluroquinolones inhibit?

DNA Gyrase

26
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Fluroquinolones are used for ______, ____, ______, and these five types of infections:

Anthrax; STD’s; Diarrhea

  1. UTI’s

  2. Respiratory Tract Infections

  3. Skin infections

  4. bone infections

  5. joint infections

27
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What are the three most common adverse reactions to fluroquinolones?

Nausea

Vomiting

Diarrhea

28
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What are the two rare adverse reactions of fluroquinolones?

Deep tendon rupture

Prolonged QT intervals

29
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Fluroquinolones have good compliance in the body 1 or 2x a day, but caution must be taken in patients with problems in three different areas:

  1. CNS

  2. Liver

  3. Renal

30
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Which fluroquinolone is most commonly used for anthrax?

Ciprofloxacin

31
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Fluroquinolones have potential drug interactions with ______ and _______

Theophylline and Warfarin

32
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How can fluroquinolones be administered?

IV or PO

33
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Fluroquinolones are absorbed easily, but absorption can be reduced by Aluminum and Magnesium containing ______

antacids

34
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What are three carbapenems?

  1. Imipenem/ Cilastin (Primaxin) (Seizurecillin)

  2. Meropenem (Merrem)

  3. Ertapenem (Invanz)

35
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Carbapenems are ____ spectrum drugs reserved for the BIG infections like:

Broad

  1. UTI’s

  2. Lower Respiratory tract infections

  3. Bone infections

  4. Joint infections

  5. Skin infections

  6. Intra-Abdominal infections

  7. Bacterial Septicemia (Blood Poisoning)

  8. Endocarditis

36
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What is the only way to administer carbapenems?

IV ONLY

37
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50% of patients allergic to ______ will also have an allergy to _______

Penicillin; Carbapenems

38
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_______ is a normal body enzyme, but it’s tubular secretion is blocked by renal dehydropeptidase, so ______ is combined with the enzyme to prevent inactivation.

Imipenem; cilastin

39
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Carbapenems are at risk for cross sensitivity. An adverse reaction of using carbapenems can also create this GI infection.

C. DIff

40
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The imipenem/ cilastin (primaxin) carbapenem should be taken with caution for patients with epilepsy, so it is also known as ______

seizurecillin

41
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Carbapenems are known to be the AK47 (big guns) because they are only used if __________

absolutely necessary!!!!!

42
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Name four b-lactamase inhibitors:

  1. Ampicillin/Sulbactam (Unasyn)

  2. Amoxicillin/ Clavulanic Acid (Augmentin)

  3. Ticarcillin/Clavulanic Acid (Timentin)

  4. Piperacillin/Tazobactam (Zosyn)

43
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What is the mode of action for b-lactamase inhibitors?

To combine with extended spectrum penicillin to extend the antimicrobial spectrum.

44
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Vancomycin is a tricyclic ________. It is usually given through __ except in the cases of pseudomembranous colitis. Vanco releases ______ which decreases BP. It is dangerous because it can cause ________ and ________. Labs to check include ___, ___, ___ and ___
glycopeptide; IV; histamines; nephrotoxicity; cytotoxicity; BUN, Cr, peaks, troughs
45
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Erythromycin is a ______. It is a ____ spectrum drug used both for ____ and ____ bacteria. It is a great alternative to _____ for those who are allergic. It can cause _____ due to ______ gastric mobility
macrolide; broad; gram + and gram -; penicillin; diarrhea; increased
46
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Fluroquinolones include drugs that end in ______, like _______. There is a high risk for ________. They are used for _____ and can cause ___ interval problems and cardiac arrhythmias
-floxacin; ciprofloxacin; deep tendon rupture; anthrax; Q-T
47
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Tetracyclines are ____ spectrum drugs. They are good for ___, Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. They can rot ___ and cause sensitivity to _____. You don't want to take these with ___ and you want to drink water to avoid ________ erosion. You also don't want to give to _____ people or children under __
Broad; STD's; teeth; sunlight; calcium; esophageal; pregnant; 8
48
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Penicillin is a cheap drug and the safest ______. It is mostly for gram __ unless there is an extended spectrum. Side effects can range from ____ to _____ and occurs in patients with ____
antibiotic; +; rash; anaphylaxis; allergies
49
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Penicillin's have a cross-sensitivity to what drug?
Carbapenems
50
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Penicillin is problematic when used with
birth control
51
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Cephalosporins have __ generations. Generations 1 to 4 get better are reaching the ___, better at inhibiting ______, and better at fighting gram __ bacteria
5; CSF; beta-lactamase; -
52
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Cephalosporins 5th generation like ____ is used for ____. Side effects occur in the ____ and the ____. Side effects include _____, ___, ____, and ____
Ceftarolene; MRSA; thymus; kidneys; diarrhea; vomiting; rash; headache
53
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E coli is gram - or gram + ?
gram -
54
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Staphylococcus is gram - or gram + ?
gram +
55
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Streptococcus is gram - or gram + ?
gram +
56
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After colectomy, the patient needs abdominal anaerobic antibiotics. Which ones?

- Clindamycin (can cause pseudomembranous colitis by altering the normal bacteria in the colon and encouraging overgrowth Clostridium difficile)

- Metronidazole

57
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What drug is used for Epilepsy?
- Imipenem
58
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Should you give Imipenem to seizure patients?
NO
59
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What drug is used for C. Diff?
Metronidazole
60
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Why shouldn't you take Metronidazole with alcohol?
It can cause severe abdominal pain
61
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What are 2 superinfections

- Yeast infections

-C. diff

62
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Gentamycin is an ______. It must be used on a ___. It is used for gram __ and is dangerous because it can fry _______. Labs include ____, ___, ___ and ____
Aminoglycoside; pump; renal tubules; BUN, Cr, peaks and troughs
63
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Vancomycin, Daptomycin, and Ceftarolene are all used for
MRSA
64
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Daptomycin is a
- cyclic glycopeptide
65
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Daptomycin is great for ___ but bad for ___ because it decreases ____
skin; lungs; surfactant
66
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Ceftarolene is the __ gen _______. It can be toxic to the ____ and is better at all 3 cephalosporin traits
5th; carbapenem; kidneys
67
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Penicillin, Vancomycin, and __ and __ cephalosporin generations are used for gram __ bacteria
1st; 2nd; +
68
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antibiotics for Gram - coverage include ______ and __ and ___ cephalosporin generations
Aminoglycosides; 3rd; 4th
69
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Sulfa drugs are used to treat ___ and ___ infections with a major side effect being a ________
UTI's; ear; burning rash
70
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Fluconazole is an anti-fungal used for ____ infections
yeast
71
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What does half-life mean?
- 50% of the drug degrades
72
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Half life drugs

- Naprosyn (lasts longer than Ibuprofen)

-Morphine

-Sulfate

- Adenosine (used for ventricular tachycardia) (helps in restoring rhythmic heartbeat) (can stop the heart for seconds)

- Succi Coline (paralyzes patient before admitting tube)

- Lorazepam (For anxious patients who pull out tubes)

73
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Ideal qualities for a drug

- Effectiveness (does it work?)

- Safety (will it cause harm?)

- Selectiveness (does it elicit a response for the intended purpose?) (don't want to kill other cells)

- Profiled to the individual

74
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Antagonist ______ receptor activation and must have an ____ around to work
prevents/ blocks; agonist
75
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Agonist ________ receptors and _______ intrinsic activity
activates; promotes
76
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Cytochrome P450 is the main enzymatic system to _______ drugs. It also determines how long the drug stays in the body
metabolize
77
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ED50
Effective dose for 50% of national population
78
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LD50
- Lethal dose for 50% of national population
79
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The wider the dose,

the safer the drug

80
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What are the most important organs for excretion and metabolism that changes with age?
Kidneys and liver
81
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Factors affecting reabsorption

- routine

-pH

-Surface area

-blood flow to area

- ability to dissolve/ dissolution of a product (people would rather use liquids than solid, oral medications)

82
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First pass effect occurs in all ____ drugs. It is absorbed in the GI tract and then carried directly to the ____ via the hepatic portal vein. It causes rapid hepatic inactivation of certain oral drugs before they reach their target sites or systemic circulation
oral; liver
83
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Drug distribution is the process by which the drug is delivered to the ___ and ___ of the body
tissues and fluids
84
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In drug absorption, drugs have to be absorbed across the _________
cell membranes. (phospholipids)
85
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drug administration is the movement of a substance from the site of ______ across the body _____ to circulating fluids
administration; membranes
86
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What are the 2 types of anti-inflammatory drugs?
NSAIDS and glucocorticoids
87
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Is Tylenol an anti-inflam drug?
NO
88
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NSAIDS are used for four things
  1. inflammation

  2. pain control

  3. fever (pyretic)

  4. Menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea)

89
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NSAIDS are used for the treatment of
gout
90
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Aspirin is used only for the prophylaxis of _____ disease (including _____ and ____) and the prophylaxis of possible ___ cancer
heart; myocardial infarction; stroke; colon
91
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NSAID's work to inhibit cyclooxygenase, AKA _____
COX
92
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COX is the enzyme that converts arachidonic acid into ______ in all tissues
prostaglandins
93
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Prostaglandins are made at sites of tissue damage or infection to cause 3 things (FIP)
  1. Fever

  2. Inflammation

  3. Pain

94
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COX 1 protects the mucosa of the __, supports ____ function, and promotes aggregation of ______
GI; renal; platelets
95
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COX 2 is ____ COX because it sensitizes receptors to _____ stimuli in tissue and the ____
bad; painful; brain
96
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Aspirin, Ibuprofen, Ketorolac, and Indomethacin are all ___ gen NSAIDS that inhibit _______
1st; COX 1 and COX2
97
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Celecoxib (Celebrex) is the __ gen NSAID to only inhibit ___. It is not proven to be better or safer that __ gen and it can increase the risk of _____
2nd; COX-2; 1st; MI/ Stroke
98
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are NSAIDs addicting?
NO
99
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Do NSAID's cause sedation?
NO
100
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What is the antidote for NSAID's
nothing