ATPL (Philippines) - Operational Procedures 4

1. TCAS I provides

A. traffic and resolution advisories.

B. proximity warning.

C. recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

B. proximity warning.

2. TCAS II provides

A. traffic and resolution advisories.

B. proximity warning.

C. maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

A. traffic and resolution advisories.

3. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to notify ATC and

A. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.

B. request a new ATC clearance.

C. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

C. expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

4. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to

A. maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact.

B. request ATC clearance for the deviation.

C. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

C. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

5. Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.

B. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, and missed approach.

C. Leaving FAF inbound, leaving outer marker inbound or outbound, procedure turn outbound and inbound, and visual contact with the runway.

A. Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.

6. What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?

A. Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.

B. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

C. Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has proceeded on final.

B. Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

7. When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR approach at an uncontrolled airport?

A. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.

B. When aligned on the final approach course.

C. When cleared for the approach.

A. Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.

8. When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?

A. Monitor ATC for traffic advisories as well as UNICOM.

B. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.

C. Wait until visual contact is made with the airport and then broadcast position and intentions to land on UNICOM.

B. Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.

9. While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?

A. Anytime the flight is on a published leg of an approach chart.

B. When the flight is within the 10-mile ring of a published approach.

C. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

C. Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.

10. When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?

A. Anytime at the pilot's discretion.

B. Only at the MAP.

C. Only when advised by the controller.

A. Anytime at the pilot's discretion.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?

A. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.

B. Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not regained, perform missed approach.

C. Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further instructions.

A. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.

12. What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?

A. A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization.

B. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.

C. Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach.

B. A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.

13. Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?

A. When cleared for an IFR approach.

B. When piloting a large, heavy aircraft.

C. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

C. In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

14. What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?

A. Continue taxiing in the landing direction until advised by the tower to switch to ground control frequency.

B. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.

C. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and switch to ground control upon crossing the taxiway holding lines.

B. Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.

15. How should a pilot describe braking action?

A. 00 percent, 50 percent, 75 percent, or 100 percent.

B. Zero-zero, fifty-fifty, or normal.

C. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

C. Nil, poor, fair, or good.

16. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.

B. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.

C. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

C. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

17. Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?

A. Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.

B. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.

C. Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in excess of 100 ft/min.

B. Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.

18. What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission?

SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE,

WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.

A. A downburst is located at the center of the airport.

B. Wake turbulence exists on the west side of the active runway.

C. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

C. There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

19. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?

A. Light and variable.

B. Wind shear.

C. Frontal passage.

B. Wind shear.

20. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

A. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.

B. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.

C. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

C. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

21. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?

A. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.

B. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.

C. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

C. Sudden increase in a headwind component.

22. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?

A. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.

B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.

C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.

23. Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

A. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.

B. Increasing tailwind and headwind.

C. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

C. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

24. Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

A. Decreasing headwind or tailwind.

B. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.

C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.

B. Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.

25. Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?

A. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.

B. Decreased takeoff distance.

C. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.

A. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.

26. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?

A. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

B. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases.

C. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

B. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases.

27. In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?

A. Less power is required.

B. Higher pitch attitude is required.

C. Lower descent rate is required.

B. Higher pitch attitude is required.

28. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?

A. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.

B. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power.

C. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

C. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

29. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as

A. convective turbulence.

B. high altitude turbulence.

C. clear air turbulence.

C. clear air turbulence.

30. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?

A. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.

B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.

C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.

A. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.

31. Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

A. A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge.

B. A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing.

C. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

C. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

32. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as

A. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.

B. 5,000 feet above the tropopause.

C. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.

B. 5,000 feet above the tropopause.

33. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?

A. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.

B. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart.

C. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

A. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.

34. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?

A. Extend flaps to decrease wind loading.

B. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.

C. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

C. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.

35. If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended?

A. Maintain a constant altitude.

B. Maintain a constant attitude.

C. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.

B. Maintain a constant attitude.

36. What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A. Establish a course across the trough.

B. Climb or descend to a smoother level.

C. Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.

A. Establish a course across the trough.

37. Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?

A. Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.

B. Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream.

C. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

C. Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

38. Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?

A. Descend if ambient temperature is falling.

B. Descend if ambient temperature is rising.

C. Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.

A. Descend if ambient temperature is falling.

39. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A. 1,500 ft/min.

B. 4,500 ft/min.

C. 6,000 ft/min.

C. 6,000 ft/min.

40. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.

B. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.

C. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

C. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

41. Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately

A. 15 knots.

B. 25 knots.

C. 45 knots.

C. 45 knots.

42. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A. 40 knots.

B. 80 knots.

C. 90 knots.

C. 90 knots.

43. An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A. 40 knots.

B. 80 knots.

C. 90 knots.

B. 80 knots.

44. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is

A. developing lift.

B. operating at high airspeeds.

C. using high power settings.

A. developing lift.

45. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?

A. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft.

B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.

C. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.

B. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.

46. Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?

A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

B. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.

C. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

47. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

A. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.

B. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.

C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

C. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

48. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

A. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

B. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.

C. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

A. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

49. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.

C. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

A. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

50. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A. Direct tailwind.

B. Light quartering tailwind.

C. Light quartering headwind.

B. Light quartering tailwind.

51. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should

A. lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.

B. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.

C. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

B. climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.

52. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off

A. prior to the point where the jet touched down.

B. beyond the point where the jet touched down.

C. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

B. beyond the point where the jet touched down.

53. To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly

A. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.

B. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.

C. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.

B. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.