Nursing Fundamentals Study Guide Flashcards

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86 practice question and answer flashcards created directly from the Nursing Fundamentals Study Guide notes.

Last updated 3:06 PM on 9/9/26
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1
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What is the typical duration and main clinical focus of an ADN / AAS nursing program?

It takes roughly 2 years and focuses on basic technical nursing skills and clinical practice for NCLEX-RN preparation.

2
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What is the typical duration and focus of a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) degree?

It takes roughly 4 years (shorter via RN-to-BSN) and focuses on professional skills, leadership, public health, and research utilization.

3
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What characterizes the Diploma Nurse pathway?

It is a hospital-based pathway lasting roughly 3 years (including prerequisites) focused on direct bedside clinical training.

4
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What career areas are emphasized in a Master of Science in Nursing (MSN) degree?

Advanced clinical roles, education, healthcare administration, or informatics.

5
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What is the focus of a Doctor of Nursing Practice (DNP) degree?

It is a practice-focused terminal degree emphasizing clinical expertise, quality improvement, and Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) translation.

6
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What is the focus of a PhD in Nursing degree?

It is a research-focused terminal degree centered on scientific investigation, theory generation, and academia.

7
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Is a Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) a licensed nurse, and what care do they provide?

No, a CNA is not a licensed nurse; they provide basic care and Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) under supervision.

8
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What defines the practice role and supervision of an LPN/LVN?

They provide care within their state scope, with supervision depending on the clinical setting and specific task.

9
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What does the abbreviation APRN stand for?

Advanced Practice Registered Nurse.

10
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What four advanced clinical roles fall under the APRN umbrella category?

Nurse Practitioner (NP), Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS), Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM), and Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA).

11
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Who is recognized as the founder of modern professional nursing?

Florence Nightingale.

12
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What major healthcare practices did Florence Nightingale revolutionize during the Crimean War (1854–1856)?

Healthcare sanitation, handwashing, and hygiene.

13
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What foundational nursing book did Florence Nightingale write in 1859?

Notes on Nursing.

14
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What training school did Florence Nightingale establish in 1860?

The St. Thomas' Hospital training school.

15
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How did Mary Seacole care for wounded soldiers during the Crimean War (1854–1856)?

She funded her own journey to care for wounded soldiers at the front lines via her 'British Hotel.'

16
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What nickname was given to Clara Barton during the American Civil War?

'Angel of the Battlefield'.

17
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What major national organization was founded by Clara Barton in the United States in 1881?

The American Red Cross.

18
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What cause was fiercely advocated for by Dorothea Dix?

The indigent mentally ill and systemic asylum reform.

19
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What official role did Dorothea Dix serve during the Civil War?

Superintendent of Army Nurses for the Union.

20
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How did Sojourner Truth contribute to nursing and healthcare?

She served as an informally trained nurse advocating for formal education and health equity.

21
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Which nursing pioneer coined the term 'public health nursing'?

Lillian Wald.

22
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What settlement house was founded by Lillian Wald in 1893?

The Henry Street Settlement.

23
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In addition to the Henry Street Settlement, what civil rights organization did Lillian Wald help establish?

The NAACP.

24
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Who was the first Professor of Nursing and Health at Columbia University?

Mary Adelaide Nutting.

25
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What committee did Mary Adelaide Nutting chair during WWI to recruit and supply trained nurses?

The National Committee on Nursing.

26
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Who served as the first Dean of the Army School of Nursing in 1920?

Annie Goodrich.

27
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What organization was founded by Mary Breckinridge in 1925 to care for rural Appalachia?

The Frontier Nursing Service.

28
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Who was the critical-care nurse that became the first person in the U.S. to receive a COVID-19 vaccine outside trials on Dec 14, 2020?

Sandra Lindsay.

29
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How did the Civil War (1861–1873) change the field of nursing?

It created massive demand for military nursing, highlighted the need for structured medical relief, and motivated formal training schools.

30
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What areas of nursing and healthcare were expanded due to the 1918 Spanish Influenza?

Public health nursing, triage, community hygiene, and formal pandemic preparedness.

31
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What specialized clinical fields and emergency systems were advanced by the Vietnam War (1955–1975)?

Specialized trauma/shock care, field resuscitation, triage protocols, rapid helicopter medevac systems, and flight nursing.

32
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What strict practice was mandated in all patient care during the early 1980s in response to HIV/AIDS?

Mandatory 'universal precautions' for all patient care.

33
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What key systemic practices and programs were accelerated by the COVID-19 Pandemic (2019–Present)?

Telehealth integration, advanced PPE protocols, and mass-vaccination programs.

34
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What is the primary goal of the nurse–patient relationship?

To establish a professional, therapeutic relationship focused entirely on the patient's health needs.

35
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What key tasks occur during the Orientation Phase of the nurse–patient relationship?

Nurse and patient meet, identify major needs/problems, establish roles and expectations, estimate relationship length, and begin building trust.

36
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What activities characterize the Working Phase of the nurse–patient relationship?

Active collaboration toward goals, implementing interventions, problem-solving, teaching, and ongoing evaluation.

37
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What dynamics may alternate during the Working Phase of the nurse–patient relationship?

Periods of effort and resistance.

38
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What key steps occur during the Termination Phase of the nurse–patient relationship?

Ending the relationship therapeutically, preparing the patient for transition/discharge, providing self-care education, and safely closing professional boundaries.

39
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Who holds exclusive responsibility for maintaining professional boundaries in the nurse–patient relationship?

The nurse.

40
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How must professional boundaries be maintained between a nurse and a patient?

By keeping the relationship strictly therapeutic, and never social or business-related.

41
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Why must nurses maintain high self-awareness in therapeutic relationships?

To actively monitor for boundary deviations and maintain self-awareness regarding personal biases.

42
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In which phase of the nurse–patient relationship do the nurse and patient estimate the relationship length?

The Orientation Phase.

43
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What is the difference between verbal and nonverbal communication?

Verbal uses spoken or written words (vocabulary, charts), while nonverbal uses cues without words (facial expressions, posture, eye contact, tone, physical distance).

44
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What defines congruent communication?

When verbal and nonverbal cues perfectly match.

45
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What is incongruent communication and what does it signal to the nurse?

It occurs when verbal and nonverbal cues conflict (e.g., saying 'I'm fine' while crying), signaling a need for clarification.

46
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What is the purpose of asking open-ended questions?

To invite full, descriptive responses in the patient's own words.

47
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What is an example of an open-ended question in a clinical interview?

'Describe your pain.'

48
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What type of responses do closed-ended questions yield?

Single-word or yes/no answers that provide narrow, fast data.

49
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When are closed-ended questions most useful in clinical communication?

When seeking narrow, fast data from the patient.

50
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What is I-SBAR-R?

A standardized handoff tool for healthcare communication.

51
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What does the letter 'I' stand for in I-SBAR-R?

Introduction.

52
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What does the 'S' stand for in I-SBAR-R, and what does it present?

Situation; it presents the urgent reason for the call.

53
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What information is included in the 'B' (Background) section of I-SBAR-R?

Patient history and vital sign trends.

54
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What is presented during the 'A' (Assessment) step of I-SBAR-R?

Current clinical findings.

55
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What does the nurse state during the first 'R' (Recommendation) of I-SBAR-R?

What is needed or recommended for the patient.

56
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What occurs during the second 'R' (Readback) of I-SBAR-R?

Word-for-word verification of orders.

57
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How does the Teach-Back Method verify patient understanding?

By asking patients to explain instructions in their own words.

58
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Where does the Teach-Back Method place the burden of clarity?

On the nurse (e.g., 'To make sure I explained this well…').

59
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What communication guideline must be followed when working with foreign language patients?

Always utilize a trained medical interpreter; never allow family members to interpret complex medical information.

60
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What is the purpose of the PICOT / PICO framework in Evidence-Based Practice (EBP)?

To focus clinical questions and narrow literature searches.

61
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What does 'P' represent in the PICOT framework?

Population / Patient / Problem.

62
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What does 'I' represent in the PICOT framework?

Intervention / Issue.

63
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What does 'C' represent in the PICOT framework, and is it mandatory?

Comparison; it is optional.

64
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What does 'O' represent in the PICOT framework?

Outcome (measurable result).

65
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What does 'T' represent in the PICOT framework?

Time (timeframe).

66
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How does a standard PICO question differ from a PICOT question?

The standard PICO framework lacks the 'T' (Time) component.

67
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What is subjective data (symptoms), and what are examples?

Information reported directly by the patient/family that cannot be independently verified (e.g., pain scale, nausea, anxiety).

68
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What is objective data (signs), and what are examples?

Measurable, observable, and verifiable clinical facts (e.g., vital signs, lab values, vomiting, grimacing).

69
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How do subjective data and objective data differ regarding verification?

Subjective data cannot be independently verified, whereas objective data are measurable and verifiable facts.

70
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What defines qualitative data in nursing?

Descriptive, non-numerical insights focusing on human experiences and meanings ('how' or 'why').

71
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What defines quantitative data in nursing?

Explicitly numerical info that can be counted and statistically analyzed ('how much' or 'how many').

72
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What studies comprise Level I of the Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) hierarchy?

Systematic Reviews & Meta-Analyses (synthesizes all relevant RCTs).

73
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What study design is at Level II of the EBP hierarchy?

Single Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT; true experimental with random assignment).

74
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What types of studies are included in Level III of the EBP hierarchy?

Controlled Trials Without Randomization (Quasi-Experiments).

75
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What study designs make up Level IV of the EBP hierarchy?

Case-Control & Cohort Studies (Observational longitudinal studies).

76
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What constitutes Level V evidence in the EBP hierarchy?

Systematic Reviews of Descriptive & Qualitative Studies (Metasyntheses).

77
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What evidence is classified under Level VI of the EBP hierarchy?

Single Descriptive or Qualitative Study (or single QI project).

78
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What constitutes Level VII, the lowest level of the EBP hierarchy?

Expert Opinions & Authority Reports (clinical consensus panels).

79
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Which level represents the highest form of evidence in the EBP hierarchy?

Level I: Systematic Reviews & Meta-Analyses.

80
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What level of the EBP hierarchy consists of Quasi-Experiments?

Level III (Controlled Trials Without Randomization).

81
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What does the acronym ADPIE stand for?

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.

82
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What occurs during the Assessment phase of the Nursing Process?

Systematic collection, organization, and validation of subjective and objective patient data.

83
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What is the purpose of the Diagnosis phase in ADPIE?

Clinical analysis of assessment data to identify actual or potential health problems and risks.

84
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What key actions are performed during the Planning phase of ADPIE?

Formulating measurable, patient-centered goals and choosing evidence-based nursing interventions.

85
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What occurs during the Implementation phase of ADPIE?

Active execution of the planned nursing care, treatments, and patient teaching.

86
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What takes place during the Evaluation phase of ADPIE?

Continuous re-assessment to determine if goals were met, partially met, or not met; revising care plan as needed.

87
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Why is Evaluation described as a continuous phase in the Nursing Process?

Because it requires continuous re-assessment to determine goal achievement and revise the care plan as needed.