Conflict Resolution and Peace Building – Practice Flashcards

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Eighty question-and-answer flashcards covering key definitions, concepts, theories, phases and examples from the BPSE-146 Conflict Resolution and Peace Building course.

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80 Terms

1
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How does Lewis Coser define conflict?

As a struggle over values and claims to scarce status, power and resources in which the aim of each party is to neutralise, injure or eliminate rivals.

2
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What three dimensions must be addressed to resolve a conflict?

Behavioural, Emotional (feelings) and Cognitive (perceptions).

3
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What are the four basic stages of conflict according to Unit 1?

Intrapersonal, Interpersonal, Intragroup and Intergroup.

4
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Name the five levels of conflict intensity in a typical life-cycle.

Stable peace, Unstable peace, Open conflict, Crisis and War.

5
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What is the main goal of conflict prevention?

To stop a potential or emerging dispute from escalating into open violence.

6
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How does conflict management differ from conflict prevention?

Management is applied once a conflict is manifest to limit or contain it, whereas prevention is used before violence appears.

7
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Give one example of a structural preventive measure.

Long-term initiatives such as creating inclusive political institutions.

8
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Define conflict settlement.

Strategies aimed at ending direct violence—often through negotiation or coercive measures—without necessarily addressing root causes.

9
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What is meant by conflict resolution?

Addressing and removing underlying incompatibilities so that parties mutually accept each other’s existence and goals.

10
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What is the chief purpose of conflict transformation?

To change the underlying social structures, relationships and attitudes that originally generated the conflict.

11
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Why is peace building considered the final phase of the conflict cycle?

Because it focuses on long-term cooperation and institution-building to ensure violence does not recur.

12
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Distinguish violent from non-violent conflict.

Violent conflicts use physical force and cause casualties; non-violent conflicts pursue incompatible goals without armed force.

13
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What is a latent conflict?

A situation in which incompatibilities exist but have not yet been openly expressed or turned violent.

14
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What is a manifest non-violent conflict?

Tension and incompatibilities are openly expressed but below the threshold of violence.

15
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List two key drivers of conflict escalation.

Fear and defensiveness that lead to cycles of threat and counter-threat.

16
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Define an economic conflict.

A dispute in which parties compete to maximise their share of scarce material resources.

17
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What characterises a value conflict?

Incompatibility in ideologies, ways of life or deeply held principles.

18
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What is a power conflict?

A struggle in which each party seeks to maintain or increase influence over the other.

19
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How can ineffective communication create conflict?

Through misperceptions, selective listening and unclear messages that generate misunderstanding and hostility.

20
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What is meant by interpersonal conflict?

Incompatibilities in needs or goals between two individuals within a relationship.

21
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Define role conflict.

Tension arising from unclear or incompatible expectations tied to social or organisational roles.

22
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What distinguishes an intergroup conflict?

It occurs between two or more social, ethnic or organisational groups competing for resources or power.

23
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Explain multiparty conflict.

A complex dispute involving several interest groups or organisations with differing priorities.

24
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What is the essence of an international conflict?

Competition between states—often alternating between diplomatic pressure and overt war.

25
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What is the ‘threat of punishment’ in international relations?

Using military action or sanctions to make another state’s policies more costly without attempting conquest.

26
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Describe the ‘threat of conquest’.

A stronger power signals intent to absorb or dominate a weaker state unless demands are met.

27
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What is meant by the ‘threat of annihilation’?

The possibility of complete destruction of an opponent—today most associated with nuclear weapons.

28
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Differentiate offensive and defensive weapons.

Defensive arms (e.g., shields) reduce vulnerability; offensive arms (e.g., bombers) are designed to inflict damage.

29
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State one hallmark of ‘new wars’.

They blur battlefront and home-front, involving states, non-state actors and widespread impact on civilians.

30
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Name two enduring sources of conflict in South Asia.

Territorial disputes (e.g., Kashmir) and power rivalry involving India, Pakistan and China.

31
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How does Kenneth Boulding define conflict?

A form of competition in which parties recognise mutually incompatible goals.

32
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List Quincy Wright’s four main types of conflict.

Physical, Political, Ideological and Legal conflicts.

33
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What three models of conflict did Anatol Rapoport identify?

Fights, Games and Debates.

34
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Give two examples from Stuart Chase’s 18 levels of conflict.

Community quarrels (town vs. town) and Religious conflicts (Protestant vs. Catholic).

35
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What are John Galtung’s two broad categories of conflict?

Intrasystem (within smallest units) and Intersystem (splits the larger system into parts).

36
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Summarise the nature–nurture debate in conflict studies.

Whether violence stems from innate human biology (nature) or from social structures and learning (nurture).

37
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What is the basic claim of Instinct Theory?

Aggressive behaviour is rooted in an inborn human instinct.

38
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How does Social Darwinism explain conflict?

Through ‘survival of the fittest’, viewing social competition and warfare as natural selection at work.

39
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What does ethology contribute to conflict theory?

It compares human aggression with animal behaviour, suggesting evolutionary roots.

40
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What is socio-biology’s stance on aggression?

Some social behaviours, including aggression, have a genetic basis shaped by evolutionary advantage.

41
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Mention one key criticism of biological theories of conflict.

They overlook cultural learning and socialisation processes that shape human behaviour.

42
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What is Freud’s ‘death instinct’ (Thanatos)?

An innate drive toward destruction that can manifest as aggression toward self or others.

43
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What core idea lies behind Social Identity Theory?

People seek a positive self-concept by favouring their own group over out-groups, which can create conflict.

44
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What was the purpose of the Seville Statement on Violence (1986)?

To refute claims that humans are biologically destined to war and violence.

45
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Define structural violence.

Harm caused by social structures or institutions that prevent people from meeting basic needs.

46
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Name Galtung’s three forms of violence.

Direct, Structural and Cultural violence.

47
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What is the central premise of John Burton’s Human Needs Theory?

Unsatisfied universal needs (e.g., security, identity, recognition) are root causes of deep conflicts.

48
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List Maslow’s five levels of needs from base to peak.

Physiological, Safety, Love/Belonging, Esteem and Self-actualisation.

49
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What key question underlies Resource Theory of conflict?

Who gets what share of limited or desired resources?

50
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Explain ‘relative deprivation’.

Feeling deprived when actual conditions fall short of expected or promised standards, fuelling grievance.

51
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How does Marx link economic structure to conflict?

Class struggle arises because those controlling production exploit the working class.

52
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What is Gramsci’s concept of ideological hegemony?

Dominant classes maintain control by shaping cultural norms, values and beliefs to justify their rule.

53
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According to Pruitt & Rubin, which strategy escalates conflict when adopted by both sides?

Contending (competing to win without concession).

54
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What is a ‘hurting stalemate’ in conflict resolution?

A stage where continued fighting hurts both parties so much that they seek negotiation.

55
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State one constructive function of conflict identified by Coser.

It prevents social ossification by stimulating innovation and social change.

56
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What role can civil society and media play in conflict management?

They act as neutral observers, facilitate communication and pressure parties toward negotiation.

57
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How does stable peace differ from unstable peace?

Stable peace has low tension and cooperation; unstable peace has high tension with negative peace only.

58
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Define crisis management.

Short-term, urgent measures to prevent imminent war once a conflict reaches crisis stage.

59
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What is preventive diplomacy?

Use of diplomatic techniques to stop disputes from arising or escalating into armed conflict.

60
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Name one key peace-keeping role of the United Nations.

Deploying observer or military missions to monitor ceasefires and protect civilians.

61
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Give an example of a territorial boundary dispute.

India–Pakistan disagreement over Kashmir’s Line of Control.

62
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Differentiate conflict management from conflict resolution in one line.

Management limits violence; resolution removes root incompatibilities.

63
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What is meant by a ‘zero-sum game’ in conflict?

A situation where one party’s gain equals the other’s loss, leaving no mutual benefit.

64
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How does the Afghanistan case illustrate the conflict cycle?

It moved repeatedly through unstable peace, crisis and war phases from the 1970s to 2000s.

65
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Define Positive Peace.

A condition not only of no war but of social justice and cooperative relationships.

66
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What is an open conflict phase?

A stage where parties’ incompatibilities are public and they take overt measures, but violence may still be limited.

67
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In which year did UNESCO adopt the Seville Statement on Violence?

1989.

68
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What is the central aim of the peace-building phase after war?

To rebuild institutions and relationships so that violence does not recur.

69
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Define crisis prevention.

Actions taken during stable or unstable peace to reduce tension and avert escalation.

70
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Give two examples of direct preventive measures.

Facilitated workshops between rivals or third-party shuttle diplomacy to build trust.

71
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State one constructive aspect of conflict recognised by George Simmel.

Conflict can strengthen group cohesion by clarifying boundaries and objectives.

72
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What is an ‘intrasystem conflict’ in Galtung’s terms?

A dispute that exists within the smallest units of a social system, such as interpersonal friction.

73
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What does MAD stand for in strategic studies?

Mutually Assured Destruction.

74
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According to Burton, why can’t basic human needs be bargained away?

Because they are essential for human dignity and survival; compromise on them is impossible.

75
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Name two cultural needs listed by Burton.

Religion and Language.

76
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What is meant by the ‘structural transformation of war’ after the Cold War?

Shift toward low-intensity, intra-state and identity-based conflicts involving non-state actors.

77
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Which case study illustrates post-conflict reconstruction in Unit 10?

Sri Lanka after the defeat of the LTTE.

78
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Which block of BPSE-146 focuses on Peace Building?

Block 3 (Units 8–10).

79
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Name any two peace initiative models discussed in Unit 12.

Martin Luther King’s civil-rights nonviolence and Nelson Mandela’s reconciliation approach.

80
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Mention two global challenges cited in the course introduction that heighten the need for peace.

Climate change and shrinking natural resources such as water.