Lab Evaluation of Hemostasis (Exam 2)

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106 Terms

1
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To analyze coagulation components, blood must be drawn in a ______ tube.

sodium citrate (light blue)

2
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What is the ratio needed of blood to anticoagulant?

9:1

3
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What are some reasons for coagulation specimen rejection?

- Ratio is off

- Clotted

- Gross hemolysis

- Hematocrit >55%

4
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What conditions warrant caution or alternative measurement?

- Icteria or lipemia

- Patient is on heparin

- Lupus anticoagulant

5
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How is platelet rich plasma (PRP) made?

Centrifuging at a low speed for a long time (30 min)

6
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How is platelet poor plasma (PPP) made?

Centrifuging at a high speed for a short time (10 min)

7
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Platelet counts for PRP and PPP?

PRP: 200,000-300,000/uL

PPP: <10,000/uL

8
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PRP is used for platelet ______.

aggregometry

9
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PPP is used for ______ assays.

clot-based

10
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Bleeding time (BT) is used to evaluate platelet ______ and ______.

adhesion, aggregation

11
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BT normal range

2-9 minutes

12
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The Platelet Function Analyzer (PFA)-100 measures the time (seconds) required for whole blood to occlude holes in a membrane coated with ______ plus ______.

collagen, EPI or ADP

13
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The PFA-100 is used instead of bleeding time to measure platelet ______.

adhesion/aggregation

14
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The PFA-100 can't be used for differentiating ______ vs. ______.

vWD, platelet function disorder

15
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Thromboelastography (TEG) assesses the patient's overall ______ status.

coagulation

16
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TEG is used to rapidly evaluate ______.

bleeding aptients

17
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TEG procedure

A cup of whole blood rotates around a pin that detects resistance as clotting occurs

<p>A cup of whole blood rotates around a pin that detects resistance as clotting occurs</p>
18
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Rotational Thromboelastography (ROTEM) is a variation of TEG that involves the rotation of the ______.

pin

19
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ROTEM gives information on ...

- Clotting time

- Clot formation

- Clot stability

- Lysis

- Activity of coagulation factors

- Platelet function

- Fibrinolysis

20
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Platelet aggregometry procedure

PRP in a cuvette + agonist --> light transmission aggregometry (LTA)

21
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Normally, after the addition of the agonist, platelets will change shape from ______ to ______.

discoid, spherical

22
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As aggregates form, there is an increase in ______.

% Transmission

<p>% Transmission</p>
23
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What agonists are used in platelet aggregometry?

- ADP

- Thrombin

- Collagen

- EPI

- Arachidonic Acid

- Ristocetin

24
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ADP binds to P2Y1 and P2Y12 to suppress membrane-associated ______ activity. What is the effect of this?

adenylate cyclase

Platelet aggregation occurs

25
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ADP is inhibited by ______ and ______.

aspirin, NSAID's

26
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Thrombin is the most potent physiological activator of ______.

platelets

27
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Thrombin cleaves ______ and ______.

PAR-1, PAR-2

28
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Cleavage of these proteins results in full secretion and ______.

aggregation

29
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Thrombin receptor-activating peptide (TRAP) only triggers ______ and not coagulation.

aggregation

30
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Collagen binds to GP Ia/IIa and GP VI on platelets inducing release of granules and ______ generation.

TXA2

31
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TXA2 is a potent inducer of ______.

platelet aggregation

32
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This causes a lag phase (30-60 seconds) and then starts ______.

secondary aggregation

33
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EPI binds to alpha-2-adrenergic receptor and causes ______ secretion.

ADP

34
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Whatever aggregates with ADP will also aggregate with ______.

EPI

35
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Arachidonic acid assesses the viability of the ______ pathway.

cyclooxygenase (arachidonic acid to TXA2)

36
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Arachidonic acid assesses aggregation independent of ______ integrity.

membrane

37
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Ristocetin (RIPA test) normally induces a monophasic ______.

agglutination

38
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RIPA requires ______ to be present in a patient's specimen and the platelets must possess an intact ______.

vWF, surface membrane

39
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With ristocetin cofactor assay for vWF, ______ platelets are used in lieu of patient platelets.

reagent

40
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Ristocetin cofactor assay for vWF procedure

Patient PPP + reagent platelets + ristocetin --> optical instrument

41
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With this test, there is a direct relationship between ______ concentration and ______ response to platelets.

vWF, aggregometer

42
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What causes absence of platelet aggregation due to ADP or EPI?

- Platelet membrane disorders

- Cyclooxygenase pathway enzyme deficiencies

- NSAID use

- Storage pool disease

43
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What causes absence of platelet aggregation due to thrombin?

- Storage pool disorders (not membrane or CO related)

44
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What causes absence of platelet aggregation due to collagen?

- Membrane abnormalities

- Storage pool defect

- Release defects

- NSAID/aspirin use

45
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What causes absence of platelet aggregation due to arachidonic acid?

- NSAID/aspirin use

- Suppressed CO activity

- Deficiencies in eicosanoid pathway enzymes

46
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What causes absence of platelet aggregation due to ristocetin?

- Bernard-Soulier syndrome

- vWD

47
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PT sample storage requirements

Room temp or refrigerated for 24 hours

48
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APTT sample storage requirements

Room temp or refrigerated for 4 hours (no heparin)

Room temp or refrigerated for 1 hour (heparin)

49
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If a patient's hematocrit is over 55%, the amount of ______ must be adjusted using a specific formula.

anticoagulant

50
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Polycythemia vera patients have more cells than normal, which decreases the amount of plasma and ______ available.

plasma factors

51
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Prothrombin Time (PT) evaluates what pathways?

Extrinsic and common

52
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PT is also used to monitor ______ therapy with INR.

Coumadin

53
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PT procedure

- Warm a source of tissue extract (thromboplastin) + citrated plasma

- Incubate

- Measure time needed to clot

54
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Prolonged PT could indicate a ______ deficiency.

factor

55
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PT is most sensitive to ______ deficiencies.

Factor VII

56
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PT is not sensitive to ______ or ______ deficiencies.

Factor VIII, IX

57
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Thromboplastin = ______ + ______

phospholipids + tissue factor

58
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International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to ______ prothrombin time.

standarize

59
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The ______ is the numeric value found on every lot of tissue extract.

International Sensitivity Index (ISI)

60
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Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) evaluates what pathways?

Intrinsic and common

61
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aPTT is used to monitor ______ therapy.

heparin

62
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aPTT procedure

- Add citrated plasma + activators + phospholipid

- Incubate

- Add calcium

- Measure time to clot

63
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Prolonged apTT could indicate ______ deficiency.

factor

64
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Factor Assays are used to evaluate ______ levels.

specific factor

65
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Factor Assay procedure

- Add dilutions of citrated plasma to citrate substrate plasma that is known to be deficient for the factor of interest

- Concentration of factor being tested is a % of the activity in normal plasma

66
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Fibrinogen is measured by the ______ Assay.

Clauss Fibrinogen

67
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This assay measures the amount of fibrinogen in ______.

PPP

68
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Clauss Fibrinogen Assay procedure

- Standard curve of normal plasma by a modification of the thrombin time test

- Standard dilution of patient plasma made

- Clotting time measured via optical density, value determined from the graph

69
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Causes of decreased fibrinogen

- DIC due to consumption

- Liver disease due to decreased synthesis

- Inherited deficiencies

70
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Causes of increased fibrinogen

- Increased age

- Female, pregnancy, oral contraception

- Post-menopause

- Acute phase reaction

71
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Thrombin Time (TT) evaluates the conversion of ...

Fibrinogen to fibrin (by thrombin)

72
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TT procedure

- Incubate citrated PPP

- Add excess thrombin

- Measure clotting time

73
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Prolonged TT could indicate presence of ______ or a deficiency in ______.

heparin, fibrinogen

74
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Reptilase Time (RT) evaluates the presence of _______.

thrombin inhibitors

75
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RT procedure

- Snake venom cleaves fibrinopeptide A from fibrinogen, initiating the polymerization of fibrin

- Plasma + viper snake venom

- Timed for presence of a clot vs. normal control

76
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Prolonged RT indicates abnormal or no synthesis of ______.

fibrinogen

77
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RT is not affected by ______.

heparin

78
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D-Dimer is used to assess ______ activity.

fibrinolytic

79
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D-Dimer is detectable in ...

- DIC

- Pulmonary embolism

- DVT

80
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What can cause a false positive D-Dimer result?

- Pregnancy

- Malignancy

- Cigarette smoking

- Trauma

- Infection

- Sepsis

81
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Factor XIII assays are used to detect Factor XIII ______.

deficiency

82
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Factor XIII deficiency will cause a normal PT and aPTT but the patient will have ______.

bleeding/bruising

83
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Factor XIII assay procedure

- Patient plasma + 5.0M urea

- Observe clot

84
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A stable clot will remain intact in 5.0M urea after ______ hours.

24 (unstable clot dissolves)

85
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Mixing studies are used to differentiate between a ______ deficiency and a circulating ______.

factor, inhibitor

86
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Mixing studies procedure

- Patient PPP + normal pooled plasma (NPP) in varying dilutions

- Clotting time measured

87
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Bethesda Assay is used to evaluate the presence of and quantify the amount of inhibitor against _______.

Factor VIII

88
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Bethesda Assay procedure

- Patient PPP (serial dilutions) + NPP

- Incubate 2 hours

- Run as aPTT

89
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The level of inhibitor in the specimen is expressed as a ______ of the control.

percentage

90
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vWF antigen test uses ______.

ELISA (sandwich)

91
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What are the components of the vWF antigen test?

Coating Ab: Specific rabbit anti-human vWF Ab

Antigen: In patient plasma

Enzyme: Peroxidase

Substrate: Ortho-phenylenediamine in hydrogen peroxide

92
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What causes high levels of vWF antigen?

- Pregnancy

- Oral contraceptive use

- Physical exercise

- Stress

- Age

93
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Decreased levels of vWF antigen are seen with ______.

vWD

94
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vWF activity is done through ______

RIPA

95
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vWF activity procedure

- Reconstituted platelets mixed with dilutions of patient plasma

- Ristocetin added

- Rate of aggregation measured

- Rate is proportional to the vWF activity

96
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Normal vWF in plasma will show an extended ladder of ______ including high MW forms.

multimers

97
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vWF multimer analysis is done via ______.

western blot

98
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vWD is associated with the lack of all ______ MW forms.

intermediate and/or high

99
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Chromogenic anti-Xa assay procedure

- Patient sample + known amounts of Xa and antithrombin

- LMWH or UFH (in patient sample) binds to antithrombin to inactivate Xa

- Xa measured by cleavage of chromophore-linked substrate

100
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Xa activity and LMWH/UFH are ______ proportional.

inversely