[TEST] Mandated, High recommended, other vaccines for oral healthcare personnel

Which statement inaccurately describes vaccine-preventable diseases in the United States?

A. Immunization programs have markedly reduced vaccine-preventable diseases in children.

B. Healthcare workers are at a lower risk of vaccine preventable disease than the general public.

C. Today, a substantial percentage of morbidity and mortality from vaccine-preventable childhood diseases occurs in older adolescents and adults.

D. Adults who escaped natural infection or immunization during childhood may be at increased risk of vaccine-preventable disease because of advanced age, the presence of certain chronic diseases, or occupation.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of vaccines?

A. Whole pathogen vaccines consist of either live-attenuated or inactivated microorganisms.

B. Subunit vaccines contained fractionated antigenic components of a microorganism.

C. Vaccines provide immediate immunological protection for the host.

D. Alum is an example of an adjuvant for generating a sufficient immune response.

Which description below is not applicable to nucleic acid vaccines?

A. Provide specific genetic material encoding a target antigen or antigens.

B. Once introduced, the body’s own cells use the genetic material to produce the desired antibody.

C. These vaccines have increased stability; can be rapidly and inexpensively manufactured.

D. Potential advantages include no risk of infection and stimulation of broad long-term immunity.

Neutralizing antibodies readily diffuse into infected cells to interact with the target-organism, while lymphoid K-cells recognize target organisms before initial intracellular penetration.

A. The first part of the statement is true, but the second part of the statement is false.

B. The first part of the statement is false, but the second part of the statement is true.

C. Both parts of the statement are true.

D. Both parts of the statement are false.

Which statement inaccurately describes passive immunization?

A. Previously infected or immunized donors can be the source for passive immunity vaccines.

B. Passive immunity against specific microorganisms may be conferred with the administration of immunoglobulins.

C. Passive immunization usually affects an immune response in about 7-10 days.

D. Useful when active immunization is unavailable, contraindicated, or when an individual cannot form antibodies.

Which population group should receive live attenuated vaccines?

A. Pregnant women

B. Healthy children and adults

C. Persons with known or suspected congenital or acquired immunodeficiency.

D. Patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy, post-organ transplantation, and those on corticosteroids

Which incorrectly describes potential adverse reactions to vaccines?

A. Live attenuated vaccines tend to have higher rates of adverse effects.

B. The most common allergic component of vaccines is egg proteins found in vaccines prepared in chicken eggs or chicken embryonic cultures.

C. Subcutaneous administration of some vaccines, such as those containing aluminum phosphates can lead to local tissue necrosis.

D. Intravascular administration tends to reduce adverse effects and increase the immune response.

Which is not a consideration for immunization strategies for OHCPs?

A. Vaccines mandated or strongly recommended at the time of employment.

B. Vaccine recommended if another risk factor is presents.

C. The availability of immunoglobulins, which are administered to susceptible persons only in the event of inadvertent exposure to blood or OPIM.

D. The cost of the vaccine to the employee.

Which statement is incorrect in relation to the hepatitis B vaccine for the OHCP?

A. Hepatitis B viral infection is a minor vaccine preventable health hazard.

B. Universal immunization is mandated for all OHCP.

C. If declining, they must sign a Mandatory Hepatitis B Vaccination Declination Form.

D. Vaccination should be completed during training.

Which statement inaccurately describes hepatitis B vaccination?

A. Consists of two or three IM injections at 0 and 1 month, or 0, 1, and 6 months, respectively.

B. Post-vaccination confirmation of seroconversion is mandated 1-2 months after the final dose.

C. OHCP with inadequate antibody response shall be offered a second vaccine series.

D. If no antibody response occurs to the second hepatitis B vaccination series, testing for HBsAg is strongly recommended.

Which statement accurately describes the treatment for OHCP who failed to seroconvert following two HBV vaccination series?

A. They cannot have patient contact due to an increased risk of HBV infection.

B. They should receive an alternate 4-dose series of vaccine if exposed.

C. They should receive hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) within a week of an exposure.

D. They should receive a booster HBV vaccine every 5 years.

Which is not a recommended approach to influenza prevention?

A. OHCP should be vaccinated annually against influenza.

B. The virologic basis for the annual influenza vaccine is the emergence of new influenza virus variants.

C. The live attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine should be used for individuals >65 years of age.

D. Antiviral agents against influenza should be used within 48 hours of symptom onset.

Which statement incorrectly describes MMR vaccination?

A. It is strongly recommended that all OHCP be immune to measles, mumps, and rubella.

B. Rubella immunity for women of childbearing age is not a public health recommendation.

C. The trivalent MMR vaccine is the vaccine of choice for routine adult vaccination.

D. The MMR vaccine contains live attenuated measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.

Which is the least accurate method to confirm immunity to the varicella-zoster virus?

A. Physician-diagnosed varicella (chickenpox) or herpes zoster.

B. Laboratory evidence of VZV immunity.

C. Age-appropriate vaccination against VZV.

D. Evidence based on maternal recollection.

Which vaccine is considered the vaccine of choice to prevent shingles (HZ)?

A. Varivax

B. Zostavax

C. Shingrix

D. VariZIG

Which statement accurately describes tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis prevention?

A. Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis are viral infections.

B. Tdap vaccine contains tetanus and diphtheria toxoids and acellular pertussis protein.

C. OHCP should receive initial dose of Tdap followed by an annual booster.

D. Tdap vaccination is not a recommended component of wound management.

Choose the incorrect statement about Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

A. OHCP may acquire HPV occupationally through mucous membranes or compromised skin.

B. High-risk strains of HPV may cause cervical cancer and oropharyngeal cancer.

C. A booster dose of Gardasil is recommended 10 years after original dose.

D. Vaccine naïve OHCP <45 years of age deemed at risk for HPV are recommended for vaccination.

Which statement is uncharacteristic of SARS-CoV-2 management?

A. There is no risk of spread associated with asymptomatic patients.

B. It is predominately spread via droplets produced when an infected patient coughs, sneezes, or talks.

C. Advanced age and certain co-morbidities increases the risk of death from SARS-CoV-2.

D. Two vaccines received Emergency Use Authorization from the FDA in 2020.

Which statement is inaccurate with respect to Neisseria meningitidis?

A. Neisseria meningitidis causes inflammation around the brain and spinal cord.

B. OHCP who meet certain risk criteria are recommended for vaccination.

C. All OHCP adults should receive vaccination once they are >55 years of age.

D. Booster vaccinations are recommended as long as the risk criteria persist.