OEC 6th Edition Chapter 34

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32 Terms

1
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Special operations is a term used to denote:

A) infrequently performed activities that require specialized training, skills, and equipment in a remote setting.

B) protocols OEC technicians use when working with an ambulance service in an urban setting.

C) a federal team that is organized to handle mass casualty situations involving mountainous terrain.

D) a specialized procedure that is used for victims a of chemical terrorism event.

A) infrequently performed activities that require specialized training, skills, and equipment in a remote setting.

2
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You overhear a group of EMTs discussing the concept of driving an ambulance with due regard for the safety of others. Which of the following statements indicates that the EMT understands the concept?

A) "When responding to an emergency, I drive as fast as possible so that emergency care can be delivered as quickly as possible."

B) "When taking a patient to the hospital, I drive as quickly as possible so that I can get back into service for another call."

C) "When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through."

D) "It is acceptable to take a nonemergency patient to the hospital using lights and siren if dispatch informs me that there is another call waiting.

C) "When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through."

3
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Which of the following statements regarding an ambulance parked at an incident is true?

A) If a law enforcement vehicle is on the scene, the ambulance should be parked right beside it.

B) When walking from the scene to the parked ambulance, you should walk on the side of the road closest to traffic so you can be more easily seen.

C) Ambulance warning lights should be turned off so they will not blind oncoming drivers.

D) The area around the ambulance and the accident scene is known as the ambulance operation zone.

D) The area around the ambulance and the accident scene is known as the ambulance operation zone.

4
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Which of the following tasks is not a task an OEC technician should be ready to perform in assisting an EMT in the back of an ambulance?

A) Medication administration

B) Putting a cervical collar on a patient

C) Hemorrhage control

D) Splinting

A) Medication administration

5
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You and your friend arrive at an accident scene where a compact car has rolled down an embankment. Based on your OEC training, you realize that before anyone enters the vehicle, it should be stabilized. Vehicle stabilization includes all of the following actions except:

A) shutting off the engine.

B) having several men hold the vehicle to prevent it from moving.

C) disconnecting the battery cables.

D) engaging the parking brake.

B) having several men hold the vehicle to prevent it from moving.

6
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Which organization helps create Community Emergency Response Teams?

A) The Federal Emergency Management Agency

B) The National Incident Management System

C) The Incident Command System

D) The Medical Reserve Corps

C) The Incident Command System

7
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Organized under the DHHS, community-based volunteer medical professionals who have agreed to help in the event of a disaster are known as the:

A) National Response Framework.

B) Emergency Support Annexes.

C) Medical Reserve Corps.

D) Disaster Medical Assistance Team.

C) Medical Reserve Corps.

8
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HAZWOPER training is required by the federal government for anyone who works in an environment in which uncontrolled hazardous materials may be encountered. Which is the correct word for a letter in HAZWOPER?

A) W: water

B) E: energy

C) R: rescue

D) O: operations

D) O: operations

9
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Which of the following statements regarding the NFPA safety diamond is true?

A) The NFPA safety diamond tells you whether the fuel in a fire is paper, liquid, gas, or wood.

B) The NFPA safety diamond must be displayed on any building or vehicle that contains hazardous materials.

C) The number of NFPA safety diamonds on a vehicle indicates the toxicity of the hazardous material.

D) The NFPA safety diamond identifies the known safety hazards of a given material.

D) The NFPA safety diamond identifies the known safety hazards of a given material.

10
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Which of the following statements concerning HAZWOPER training is false?

A) Training includes the types of hazardous materials present and their risks to the rescuers and the public.

B) All EMS personnel are trained in all aspects of a HazMat-related incident.

C) Training generally includes classroom instruction and practical training.

D) Annual refresher training is generally required.

B) All EMS personnel are trained in all aspects of a HazMat-related incident.

11
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In a hazmat incident, a boundary that is set up to prevent members of the public from entering the incident is called a(n):

A) incident perimeter.

B) isolation perimeter.

C) decontamination line.

D) hazard boundary line.

B) isolation perimeter.

12
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The contaminated area in a hazardous incident is known as the:

A) contaminated zone.

B) decontamination zone.

C) hot zone.

D) cold zone.

C) hot zone.

13
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In a HazMat incident, the transition area in which decontamination occurs is known as the:

A) warm zone.

B) treatment area.

C) transport zone.

D) cold zone.

A) warm zone.

14
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You are instructing an OEC class on the handling of a hazmat incident. You are asked where OEC technicians would be assigned if they were assisting at a hazmat scene. Which of the following statements is the appropriate response?

A) "Because of your training in this class, you could be assigned to any of the hazard control zones."

B) "OEC technicians do not have the skills required to assist in a HazMat incident."

C) "Because of your OEC training, you would probably be assigned to the cold zone."

D) "OEC technicians could assist inside of the isolation perimeter."

C) "Because of your OEC training, you would probably be assigned to the cold zone."

15
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Toxic nerve agents:

A) overstimulate the nerve endings and the central nervous system.

B) block stimulation of sensory nerve endings only.

C) decrease production of chemical transmitters.

D) block stimulation of both sensory and motor nerve endings.

A) overstimulate the nerve endings and the central nervous system.

16
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In the event that OEC technicians are exposed to an organophosphate or a chemical nerve agent, they may need to self-administer the nerve agent antidote. Which of the following statements regarding the self-administration of a nerve agent antidote is false?

A) "If severe symptoms are present, three atropine auto-injectors and three 2-PAM Cl injectors are administered in rapid succession."

B) "The medication is administered in a way that is similar to that for an Epi-Pen."

C) "If the nerve agent has been ingested, exposure may continue for some time, and a relapse is a possibility."

D) "Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will either be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM Cl injector."

D) "Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will either be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM Cl injector."

17
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Which of the following activities is not considered a special operation?

A) A vehicle extrication

B) Toboggan transportation

C) A low-angle rescue

D) A lift evacuation

B) Toboggan transportation

18
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Search and rescue operations consist of which of the following five basic tasks?

A) Information gathering, grid assignments, search, medical treatment, and evacuation

B) Mobilization, intelligence gathering, containment, search, and rescue

C) Notification of rescue personnel, perimeter marking, grid assignments, search & rescue, and reporting

D) Incident Commander assigned, team leaders and teams assigned, grids determined, search & rescue, and reporting

B) Mobilization, intelligence gathering, containment, search, and rescue

19
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Logistics, one of the four basic functions of an organized avalanche rescue, is primarily concerned with:

A) getting the rescuers to the scene.

B) arranging for extrication of the victims.

C) caring for the rescuers in the field.

D) keeping a log of the search's activities.

C) caring for the rescuers in the field.

20
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Which of the following lists correctly places the tasks of fire ground operations in order of priority?

A) Size-up, confinement, control, ventilation, rescue/life safety, accountability, property conservation

B) Confinement, size-up, control, property conservation, rescue/life safety, accountability, ventilation

C) Size-up, accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, ventilation, property conservation

D) Accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, size-up, property conservation, ventilation

C) Size-up, accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, ventilation, property conservation

21
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Natural Disaster Medical System

has 3 components, medical response to disaster, move patients from disaster site, and definitive medical care at participating hospitals in unaffected areas

22
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Disaster medical Assistance Teams

are responsible for medical aspects of disaster response, are trained to deploy to disaster sites, equipped with supplies for 72 hours. Each team has physicians, nurses, paramedics, mental health professionals, etc.

23
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Medical Reserve Corps

organized through REadiness Division Office of Emergency Management and Medical Operations of DHHS, at unit level they are community based composed of volunteer medical professionals who have agreed to help in the event of a disaster

24
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Community Emergency Response Team

CERT is designed to help communities affected by disasters, composed of local volunteers, receive basic training

25
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Initial management of hazmat incident

  • Start by establishing isolation perimeter to prevent entry

  • Establish 3 hazard control zones

26
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Hot zone

Hot zone is hazardous material, most dangerous and contaminated, only personnel with training and equipment

27
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Warm zone

Warm zone is decontamination corridor, transition where this happens

28
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Cold zone

outermost zone in hazmat incident, support personnel, can operate without PPE

29
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Organophosphates (nerve agent) poisoning

Can cause excessive pulmonary secretions leading to respiratory failure, if exposed may need to self administer nerve agent antidote

30
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Acronyms to identify signs of nerve agent poisoining

SLUDGEM and DUMBBELLS

31
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SLUDGEM

Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, Gastrointestinal cramps, Emesis, Miosis or twitching

32
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DUMBBELLS

Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis (pupil constriction) Bradycardia (slow heart rate) Bronchospasm, Emesis (vomiting), Lacrimation (tearing) Salivation/sweating