ROSH REVIEW PA CAT

hepatitis B

is typically spread through contact with bodily fluids, such as sexual contact or sharing needles among people who use intravenous drugs. In the acute phase, it may cause nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, dark urine, and a significant elevation in liver enzymes. Many patients are vaccinated against hepatitis B as children as a part of routine vaccinations. Healthy, immunocompetent hosts often recover completely.

hepatitis C

often presents with a chronic hepatitis infection with symptoms that include liver enzyme elevation, malaise, nausea, jaundice, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Many patients will be asymptomatic. Those in the acute phase tend to have more severe symptoms. Some patients with hepatitis C experience full recovery, while others (in particular those with significant disease burden) experience liver failure and cirrhosis.

Hepatitis D

is a rare cause of hepatitis transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It requires a coinfection with hepatitis B to cause infection. Patients will often present with fever, malaise, nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and jaundice. Patients with both hepatitis B and D tend to have a poorer prognosis

hepatitis A

is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It presents with fever, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, like a typical viral gastroenteritis. However, other unique symptoms that may be present include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, dark urine, and jaundice.

- elevation in liver enzymes suggesting hepatic injury

what type of hepatitis is primarliy dangerous for pregnant patients?

- hep E

Gi (A)

is an inhibitory G protein and reduces intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate levels.

Gs

is a stimulatory G protein that increases intracellular levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate. While stimulating the beta-1 or -2 receptors would increase heart rate and contractility, thus increasing blood pressure, the heart rate would increase rather than decrease.

- slow heart rate

Gt

is activated by rhodopsin and the color opsins in the rod and cone cells of the retina.

Gq

is associated with histamine H1, alpha-1, vasopressin V1, muscarinic M1, and muscarinic M3 receptors. Gq mediates its downstream effects via calcium, and activation of the alpha-1 receptor (coupled to Gq) leads to vasoconstriction and an increase in systemic vascular resistance (causing an elevated blood pressure, as seen in this case). The baroreceptors will detect this elevated blood pressure, which ultimately will lead to a reflex bradycardia, thus the slow heart rate in this patient

What G protein would be activated if there was too much stomach acid being produced?

Gi to inhibit further release.

nosocomial

- infection acquired in health care setting

oportunistic

pathogens are those that cause infections in a compromised host, such as an immunocompromised patient, but would not routinely infect healthy individuals. Many fungal infections are opportunistic, as they rarely affect immunocompetent hosts.

recurrent

infections describe repeated infections. For example, an individual may have recurrent outbreaks of herpes labialis. Recurrent infections are not typically acquired in the health care setting.

zoonotic

infections are transmitted from animals to humans and rarely are transmitted in the health care setting. For example, zoonotic disease may be transmitted through a dog or insect bite.

Granulosa cells (B)

are somatic cells that form a layer around germ cells in the ovary. Somatic cells in the human body undergo mitosis to create genetically identical daughter cells. These cells do not undergo meiosis and do not introduce genetic variation through independent assortment. Red blood cells originate from stem cells.

red blood cells

do not undergo any form of cellular division. Stem cells are the progenitor cells from which all other specialized cells originate.

stem cells

divide to form genetically identical daughter cells through mitosis. They do not undergo meiosis for sexual reproduction, and they do not introduce genetic variability through independent assortment.

germ cells

undergo independent assortment

- haploid

meiosis

s the process that forms haploid cells from diploid cells, and it is during meiosis that genetic variability is introduced into the genome. Like mitosis, meiosis goes through a set of phases.

what phase dpoes Meiosis II lack but meiosis I has

lacks an S phase so that DNA is not duplicated again

x linked recessive

require two copies of the defective X chromosome for disease to manifest in females (which is uncommon) or just one copy in males given they only have one X-chromosome. As a result, 50% of sons of maternal carriers will manifest disease as there is a 50% chance that the son will inherit the mutated X chromosome. Similarly, 50% of daughters of maternal carriers will also be carriers.

- affected males will pass on the allele to 100% of their daughters, making them carriers, but 0% of their sons will be affected since they only give their sons the Y chromosome.

autosomal dominant

-conditions will present in all sons and daughters who inherit the affected allele, and each generation will typically have an individual with the disease. Only one copy of the affected allele is required for individuals to manifest disease in autosomal dominant conditions.

autosomal recessive

conditions require two defective alleles for the disease to manifest and will affect males and females equally. Generally, autosomal recessive conditions will skip generations.

x linked dominant

conditions will affect both males and females. All sons and daughters with a defective X chromosome will manifest disease (rather than 50%), and there would not be maternal carriers in an X-linked dominant condition. None of the sons of an affected father would manifest disease, as fathers only pass a Y chromosome to their sons.

What inheritance pattern presents with a blending of phenotypes in the offspring?

Partial or incomplete dominance (in contrast to codominance in which the phenotypes of both parents are each expressed in the offspring).

ajaculation of sperm

- begins in seminiferous tubules

- that empties into the rete testis

- then into efferent ductules into the epididymis

- then enters the vas deferens

- then does to ejaculatory duct when seminal vesicle provides fluid

- then the prostatic urethra

- then transits through the penile urethra

“SEVEn UP,

seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, nothing, urethra, and penis

What parts of the autonomic nervous system are involved in obtaining an erection and ejaculation?

The parasympathetic nervous system (erection) and sympathetic nervous system (ejaculation).

facilitated diffusion

s a method of moving molecules when there is a membrane that prevents passive diffusion. This method is not an active process and does not require adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Rather, it uses the electrochemical gradient that exists for the molecule or ion. However, the cell membrane is only permeable to small, nonpolar molecules, thus facilitated diffusion is needed for larger, polar molecules or even small charged ions.

active transport

- required ATP

- move molecule against electrochemical gradient

- sodium potassium ATPase

- 3 sodium ions into cell and 2 potassium out

osmosis

- passive movement of water across permeable memebrane

- low to high

reabsorption

- process of reabsorbing or pulling a solutee back into the cell or serum

- ex: kidney where segments of nephron, like the PCT will reabsorb both water and solutes and leeave urine behinf

what process releases energy from adenosine triphosphate

hydrolysis

rotatoir cuff muscles

- infraspinatus, subscapularis, supraspinatus, teres minor

supraspinatus

is to initiate and aid the deltoid muscle in abducting the shoulder joint. A patient with an injured supraspinatus muscle may demonstrate pain and weakness upon abduction of the affected shoulder.

-

infraspinatus

- muscle attaches proximally to infraspinatous fossa

- The main actions of the infraspinatus muscle are to laterally rotate the shoulder joint (i.e., external rotation) and hold the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

subscapularis

muscle attaches proximally to the subscapular fossa on the anterior surface of the scapula and attaches distally to the lesser tubercle of the humerus. The main actions of the subscapularis are to medially rotate and adduct the shoulder joint and to hold the humeral head in the glenoid cavity.

teres minor

muscle has a proximal attachment on the middle part of the lateral border of the scapula and a distal attachment on the inferior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus. The teres minor performs the same actions as the infraspinatus muscle.

What are two intrinsic muscles of the shoulder that are not considered rotator cuff muscles?

The deltoid and the teres major.

dalton partial pressure equation

Ptotal = Pnitrogen + Phydrogen + Poxygen.

ideal gas law

PV = nRT.

- n = moles

What type of reaction gives electrons to one compound and removes electrons from another?

an oxidation- reduction reaction

branches of trigeminal nerve

ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibula

mandivular branch of trigmenial

motor innervation of the muscles of mastication

the mandibular nerve cranial nerve V3 branches

the auriculotemporal, buccal, and mental

auriculotemporal

branch passes posterior to the mandible and superior to the parotid gland, emerging at the temporomandibular joint. This branch provides sensory innervation to the skin of the anterior auricle, the tragus, the helix, the roof of the external acoustic meatus, and the skin of the tympanic membrane.

buccal branch

branch of the mandibular nerve passes between the two parts of the pterygoid muscle and emerges near the ramus of the mandible and masseter, providing sensory innervation to the gingiva and cheek.

mental branch

branch of the mandibular nerve passes through the mandibular canal and emerges through the mental foramen of the mandible, providing sensory innervation to the chin and lower lip.

maxillary branch

branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V2) provides purely sensory innervation to the face and has three branches: the infraorbital, zygomaticofacial, and zygomaticotemporal. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve helps innervate the skin of the cheek, skin of the anterior part of the temporal fossa, inferior eyelid, lateral nose, inferior nasal septum, and mucosa of the upper lip and maxillary sinus.

ophthalmic branch

branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V1) also provides purely sensory innervation to the face and has five branches: supraorbital, supratrochlear, infratrochlear, lacrimal, and external nasal. The ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve provides innervation to the superior eyelids, forehead, scalp to the vertex, lacrimal gland, and portions of the nose.

Which nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression?

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII).

UGA, UAA, UAG

stop codons,

-

What adds amino acids to transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA)?

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

alternative splicing

produces unique mRNAs that can make different proteins but would not produce a large protein that gets cleaved into smaller proteins over time.

- would lead to multiple unique functional proteins

hydroxylation

is a post-translational modification that would not lead to the formation of two distinct proteins. Hydroxylation is the addition of a hydroxyl (-OH) group which modifies the structure and polarity of the molecule.

northern blot

experimental method can be used to quantify ribonucleic acid levels?

proteolysis

process cleaves propeptides and converts zymogens to active enzymes

psychotherapy

involves the different types of aforementioned talk therapies, including cognitive behavioral therapy, dialectical behavioral therapy, or psychodynamic psychotherapy, among many others. Talk therapy involves communicating with the patient and guiding them through their problems with the type of therapy tailored to the individual.

biomedical therapy

cludes physiological interventions that target an individual's neurochemistry and include interventions such as antidepressants (such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors), antipsychotics, and anti-anxiety medications, among many others, depending on the patient's needs. It also includes therapies such as electroconvulsive therapy, which is used in severe or refractory cases of depression

What does a person have if they are able to understand an illness as well as the treatment options, risks, benefits, and alternatives to care and make an informed decision?

Capacity.

median

- center value in dataset when data set is arranged low to high

mode

- occurs most frequently

standard deviatiom

- measure of spread

mean

average

Given the standard deviation, how is variance calculated?

Variance = (standard deviation)2.

prion

are abnormal proteins that cause abnormal folding of normal proteins and lead to significant disease that is often rapidly progressive and fatal

- cause spongiform encephalopathies, which lead to rapid neurodegeneration and death and affect both humans and animals

bacteria

may cause life-threatening infections that lead to sepsis and septic shock. However, bacteria would not lead to a large accumulation of protein in the central nervous system.

ribosome

is responsible for producing proteins, the abnormal protein in a prion disease is thought to occur via the heterodimer or fibril model.

virus

may lead to the production of abnormal proteins, but it would not cause such rapidly fatal neurodegeneration, which is characteristic of prion disease.

What infection occurs when bacteria enter the cerebrospinal fluid?

bacterial meningitis

What is the concept that language shapes and influences human thought, cognition, and ideas?

Linguistic determinism.

start codon

AUG

gene expression profiling

can be used to measure the activity of gene expression. Gene expression profiling measures the levels of messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) produced

proteomics

s the study of the functional set of proteins made in an organism and complements the knowledge known from genome sequencing and gene expression profiling.

sanger method

is where regions of DNA are sequenced in small fragments to determine the sequence of DNA. A newer method of DNA sequencing includes

next generation techniques

and involves various methods that allow for more rapid sequencing.

genome sequencing

would offer useful information about the DNA sequence present but would not offer much information regarding what is expressed from DNA and RNA. Therefore, gene expression profiling is a better answer.

microbiommics

is the study of assessing and quantifying the microbes present, such as the gut microbiome or the skin microbiome.

What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

Deoxyribonucleic acid is used to make ribonucleic acid, which is then used to make proteins.

what is alpha?

The probability of committing a type I error

situational attribution

is when someone’s actions or behaviors are attributed to the situation that they are exposed to. Rather than merely assuming the individual’s behavior is due to some innate trait, situational attribution involves analyzing the environment and circumstances an individual is exposed to and then relating these external forces to the individual’s behavior.

What error occurs when an individual incorrectly uses dispositional attribution rather than situational attribution?

Fundamental attribution error.

dispositional attribution

which assumes that an individual’s behaviors and actions are merely attributable to innate characteristics of said individual. Such an attribution is more cursory and takes less cognitive effort, thus individuals may be biased to attribute the behaviors of others in this manner. Some examples of innate characteristics may include personality, attitude, beliefs, work ethic, or demeanor.

self-serving bias

is when individuals have the bias of attributing their own successes to dispositional factors (such as work ethic) and fail to recognize situational benefits that lead to the outcome of interest.

G1 interphase checkpoint

when it detects damaged deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that must be repaired before cell division.

s phase

each of the 46 chromosomes is duplicated by the cell

G2

the cell "double checks" the duplicated chromosomes for error, making any needed repairs

- stops the cell from entering mitosis

karyokinesis

is the first part of mitosis. This stage is divided into phases: prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During this process, duplicated chromosomes are aligned, separated, and distributed into two new identical daughter cells. The M checkpoint occurs near the end of metaphase during karyokinesis. At this checkpoint, the cell determines whether all sister chromatids are correctly attached to the spindle microtubules. p53 does not act at this checkpoint.

During what phase of karyokinesis are sister chromatids pulled toward opposite poles?

anaphase

colligative property

is dependent on the number of solute particles in a certain solution, where more solute particles stabilize the liquid phase

increase in solute presence in solution

Any increase in solute presence in solution stabilizes the liquid phase and increases the boiling point (less likely to become a gas), decreases the freezing point (less likely to become a solid), increases the osmotic pressure, and decreases the vapor pressure (less likely to become a gas).

What types of molecules can passively cross the cell membrane?

small, nonpolar molecules

tRNA

delivers the necessary amino acid to the ribosome where a polypeptide chain is synthesized. Further modification may occur at this point, preparing the chain for its intended role.

What is the term for the three nucleotide sequence of genetic code in a transfer RNA molecule that corresponds to the complementary codon in the messenger RNA?

Anticodon.

mediastinum

is the central part of the thorax between the two pleural sacs that contain the lungs.

- trachea, esophagus, aorta, vena cava

- divided into superior and inferior

- inferior divdied into anterior, middle, posterior

superior mediastinum

include the arch of the aorta, superior vena cava, vagus nerve, phrenic nerve, thymus, trachea, esophagus, and thoracic duct.

middle mediastinum

contains the following major structures: heart, pericardium, tracheal bifurcation, right and left main bronchi, origins of the great vessels (ascending aorta, pulmonary trunk, and superior vena cava), and phrenic nerves.

anterior mediastinum

does not contain any major structures. It primarily contains connective tissue structures, including the sternopericardial ligament, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes.

posterior mediastinum

contains the following major structures: thoracic aorta, esophagus, thoracic duct, and azygos vein.

What are the three major branches of the aortic arch?

brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery.