Summer combined

term

What type of tissue covers the internal and external surfaces of the body?

a. Muscular

b. Connective

c. Nervous

d. Epithelial

Epithelial

A body system that consists of an association of organs that share a common function

a. True

b. False

True

How many individual body systems comprise the human body?

a. 22

b. 13

c. 10

d. 8

10

How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?

a. 181

b. 215

c. 206

d. 236

206

Which of the following systems of the human body includes all ductless glands of the body?

a. Endocrine

b. Integumentary

c. Muscular

d. Glandular

Endocrine

Which of the following body systems helps to regulate body temperature?

a. Circulatory

b. Urinary

c. Endocrine

d. Nervous

Circulatory

Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

a. Radius

b. Hip bone

c. Clavicle

d. Sternum

Sternum

How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton?

a. 206

b. 80

c. 54

d. 136

80

What is the name of the small oval-shaped bone found in tendons?

a. Wormian

b. Tendinous

c. Irregular bones

d. Sesamoid bones

Sesamoid bones

Which of the following is classified as a long bone?

a. Carpal bone

b. Scapula

c. Cranium

d. Humerus

Humerus

What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?

a. Cancellous portion

b. Periosteum

c. Diploe

d. Medullary portion

Periosteum

Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?

a. Vertebrae

b. Phalanges (toes)

c. Scapulae

d. Carpal (wrist bones)

Carpal (wrist bones)

Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?

a. Diaphysis

b. Epiphyses

c. Metaphysis

d. Articular cartilage

Epiphyses

Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

a. Compact bone

b. Periosteum

c. Medullary cavity

d. Spongy or cancellous bone

Spongy or cancellous bone

Examples of "flat" bones are the:

a. Calvaria, ribs, scapulae and sternum

b. Ribs, sternum, patella and ilia of pelvis

c. Sternum, scapulae, ilia of pelvis and base of cranium,

d. Sternum and ilia of pelvis cavity

Calvaria, ribs, scapulae and sternum

What is the primary center for bone growth termed?

a. Epiphyses

b. Diaphysis

c. Metaphysis

d. Epiphyseal plate

Diaphysis

Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of joints?

a. Synarthrosis

b. Amphiarthrosis

c. Cartilaginous

d. Diarthrosis

Cartilaginous

The structural term for a freely movable joint is:

a. Fibrous

b. Cartilaginous

c. Synovial

d. Gomphosis

Synovial

Which of the following joints displays a "hinge" type of movement?

a. Trochoid

b. Ellipsoidal

c. Sellar

d. Ginglymus

Ginglymus

Which of the following joints is NOT a synovial joint?

a. Skull suture

b. Elbow joint

c. Hip joint

d. Proximal radioulnar joint

Skull suture

Which of the following is classified as a sellar joint?

a. Ankle joint

b. Temporomandibular joint

c. Knee joint

d. Intercarpal joint

Ankle joint

Which of the following is classified as a biocondylar joint?

a. Shoulder joint

b. Temporomandibular joint

c. First and second cervical vertebra joint

d. Distal radioulnar joint

Temporomandibular joint

An upright position with the arms abducted, palms forward and head forward describes the ___ position.

a. Anteroposterior (AP)

b. Decubitus

c. Anatomic

d. Oblique

Anatomic

A representation of the patient's anatomic structures that can be obtained, viewed, manipulated and stored digitally is the definition for:

a. Radiograph

b. Radiography

c. Radiographic image

d. Radiographic examination

Radiographic image

The vertical plane that divides the body into right and left halves describes the ___ plane.

a. Corona

b. Median or midsagittal

c. Longitudinal

d. Horizontal

Median or midsagittal

A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the ___ plane.

a. Midcoronal

b. Midsagittal

c. Horizontal

d. Oblique

Midcoronal

Which of the following terms describes the sole of the foot?

a. Palmar

b. Dorsum

c. Volar

d. Plantar

Plantar

Which term describes the back or posterior aspect of the hand?

a. Dorsum pedis

b. Dorsum manus

c. Palmar

d. Volar

Dorsum manus

A lateromedial projection is one in which the lateral aspect of the anatomy part is closest to the image receptor (IR).

a. True

b. False

False

A position in which the head is lower than the feet is:

a. Trendelenburg

b. Lithotomy

c. Fowler's

d. Recumbent

Trendelenburg

Which term describes lying down in any position?

a. Horizontal

b. Fowler's

c. Recumbent

d. Anatomic

Recumbent

A recumbent oblique position in which the patient is lying on the left anterior side rotated anteriorly, with the right knee and thigh flexed is termed:

a. Trendelenburg

b. Left posterior oblique

c. Sims' position

d. Fowler's position

Sims' position

A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. The right side of her body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor. What is the radiographic position?

a. LPO (left posterior oblique)

b. RPO (right posterior oblique)

c. RAO (right anterior oblique)

d. LAO (left anterior oblique)

RPO (right posterior oblique)

A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor. The central ray (CR) enters the right side of the body. What is this radiographic position?

a. Right lateral

b. Left lateral decubitus

c. Left lateral

d. Dorsal decubitus

Left lateral

A patient is lying on her back. The x-ray tube is horizontally directed with the CR entering the right side of the body. The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body. What is the radiographic position?

a. Left lateral decubitus

b. Left lateral

c. Right lateral decubitus

d. Dorsal decubitus

Dorsal decubitus

A patient is erect facing the image receptor. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the image receptor. The CR enters the posterior aspect of the body and exits the anterior. What is the radiographic position?

a. LAO

b. LPO

c. Left lateral

d. Posteroanterior (PA)

LAO

What type of projection is created with the CR directed along or parallel to the long axis of the body?

a. Axial

b. Tangential

c. Lordotic

d. Transthoracic

Axial

A projection in which the CR skims a body part is termed:

a. Tangenital

b. Lordotic

c. Axial

d. Decubitus

Tangential

What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)?

a. Axial

b. Trendelenburg

c. Decubitus

d. Lordotic

Lordotic

The opposite term for supination is:

a. Protraction

b. Adduction

c. Pronation

d. Retraction

Pronation

Which of the following positions is often used to insert a rectal enema tip before a barium enema study?

a. Fowler's

b. Modified Sims

c. Lithotomy

d. Trendelenburg

Modified Sims

Tangenital and axial projections are the same type of projection

a. True

b. False

False

A dorsoplantar projection would be a radiographic study of:

a. Any anatomic region

b. The hand

c. The foot

d. The skull

The foot

Moving the foot and toes downward is:

a. Eversion

b. Inversion

c. Dorsiflexion

d. Plantar flexion

Plantar flexion

Movement in the form of a circle is the definition for:

a. Rotation

b. Retraction

c. Circumduction

d. Protraction

Circumduction

Which of the following terms is the opposite of ipsilateral?

a. Medial

b. Deviation

c. Contralateral

d. Axiolateral

Contralateral

The radiographic term projection is defined as:

a. General position of the patient

B. Path or direction of the central ray

C. Radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the image receptor

D. Computer-assisted image

Path or direction of the central ray

According to the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics, a radiologic technologist may render a diagnosis during a radiographic examination if requested by the patient.

a. True

b. False

False

According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, radiologic technologists must participate in continuing education activities throughout their professional career.

a. True

b. False

True

It is legally acceptable to write "right" or "left" on a radiograph if the anatomic side marker is not visible.

a. True

b. False

False

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a piece of wire in the palm of the hand. What is the minimum number of projections required to be taken for this radiographic study?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four or more

Two

Which of the following radiographic procedures often only requires a single AP projection be taken?

a. Finger

b. Ribs

c. Chest

d. Pelvis

Pelvis

What is the final step taken before making the exposure during a positioning routine?

a. Image receptor centering

b. Placing anatomic markers on image receptor

c. Ensuring correct gonadal shield placement

d. Collimation adjustments

Ensuring correct gonadal shield placement

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

Two

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

Two

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the elbow?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

Three

PA or AP oblique projections are placed on the view box with the patient's right side of the body facing the viewer's right.

a. True

b. False

False

Decubitus chest projections are placed for viewing the way the image receptor "sees" them.

a. True

b. False

False

A patient is erect with his right side of the chest placed against the image receptor. The central ray enters the left side of the upper chest and exits the right. Which specific position has been performed?

a. Dorsal decubitus

b. Transthoracic lateral

c. Right lateral

d. Ventral decubitus

Right lateral

A patient is erect facing the x-ray tube and leaning the shoulders backward 20° to 30° toward the IR. The central ray is perpendicular to the IR. What specific position has been performed?

a. Lordotic

b. Axial

c. Kyphotic

d. Tangential

Lordotic

The top of the foot is placed against the image receptor with the perpendicular central ray entering the sole of the foot. What specific projection has been performed?

a. Transpedal

b. Plantodorsal

c. Axial dorsoplantar

d. Tangential plantodorsal

Plantodorsal

The patient is lying on her right side on a cart. The anterior surface of the patient is against the image receptor. A horizontal central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior surface of the body. What specific projection/position has been performed?

a. AP

b. PA

c. Right lateral decubitus

d. Left lateral decubitus

Right lateral decubitus

A 40-inch (102 cm) SID should be the minimal distance used for most radiographic projections.

a. True

b. False

True

A 20-year-old woman is brought into radiology from the ED with a possible fracture of the pelvis. What should the technologist do regarding gonadal shielding?

a. Perform a PA projection of the pelvis and use gonadal shielding

b. Take AP projection of pelvis without using any shielding

c. Cover the area of the ovaries and uterus with a gonad shield for the AP pelvis projection

d. Refuse to take any radiographs without the radiologist's consent.

Take AP projection of pelvis without using any shielding

Which of the following precautions reduces radiation exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure to the greatest degree?

a. Wearing a protective lead apron of 1-mm lead thickness

b. Wearing a thyroid shield

c. Standing as far away as possible from the radiation scatter fields

d. Turning your back to the fluoroscopy table

Standing as far away as possible from the radiation scatter fields

The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the:

A. Top of shoulders and xiphoid process

B. Jugular notch and top of shoulders

C. Lower margin of thyroid cartilage and vertebra prominens

D. Jugular notch and vertebra prominens

D. Jugular notch and vertebra prominens

The vertebra prominens corresponds to the level of:

A. C7

B. C5

C. T2

D. C 4-5

A. C7

The xiphoid process is a reliable positioning landmark for determining the lower margin of the lungs for chest positioning.

a. True

b. False

b. False - because of different body habitus it is not a reliable landmark.

It does however correlate with T9, T10, and the anterior portion of the

diaphragm.

The upper margin of the lungs is at the level of the:

a. jugular notch.

b. vertebra prominens.

c. laryngeal prominence.

d. sternal angle.

b. vertebra prominens.

What is the name of the structure that serves as a common passageway for both food and air?

a. Epiglottis

b. Larynx

c. Pharynx

d. Esophagus

c. Pharynx

The jugular notch is located on the:

a. sternum.

b. thyroid cartilage.

c. seventh cervical vertebra.

d. scapula.

a. sternum.

What is the correct anatomic name for the Adam's apple?

a. Sternum

b. Epiglottis

c. Cricoid cartilage

d. Laryngeal prominence

d. Laryngeal prominence

What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid?

a. Uvula

b. Epiglottis

c. Hyoid bone

d. Oropharynx

b. Epiglottis

Which of the following structures is considered to be most posterior?

a. Larynx

b. Esophagus

c. Trachea

d. Hyoid bone

b. Esophagus

The lower concave area of the lung is termed the:

a. base.

b. apex.

c. hilum.

d. costophrenic angle.

a. base.

Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior?

a. Epiglottis

b. Hyoid bone

c. Carina

d. Vocal cords

c. Carina

The internal prominence or ridge in which the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the:

a. carina.

b. hilum.

c. thyroid cartilage.

d. costophrenic angle.

a. carina.

The inner layer of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the:

a. parietal pleura.

b. pericardial sac.

c. pulmonary pleura.

d. pleural cavity

c. pulmonary pleura.

Can also be referred to as visceral pleura.

Air or gas that escapes into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as:

a. air bronchogram.

b. pneumothorax.

c. hemidiaphragm.

d. hemothorax.

b. pneumothorax.

Which of the following structures is NOT considered as a mediastinal structure?

a. Thymus gland

b. Aorta

c. Trachea

d. Epiglottis

d. Epiglottis

Which of the following is considered a structure/organ of the thoracic cavity?

Medistinum

Heart

Aorta

Thymus

a, b, & c only

a only

b, c, & d

b, & d only

3. b, c, & d

The laryngeal prominence is a positioning landmark located at the level of:

a. T1.

b. C7.

c. C5.

d. C3.

c. C5.

The thyroid gland is located at the approximate level of:

a. C1-3.

b. the carina.

c. the epiglottis.

d. C5-7.

d. C5-7.

The thymus gland is at its maximum size at:

a. age 40.

b. age 21.

c. puberty.

d. birth.

c. puberty.

The heart is located in the anterior chest at the level of:

a. T2-5.

b. the thymus gland.

c. the arch of the aorta.

d. T5-8.

d. T5-8.

The asthenic body type makes up approximately ____% of the population.

a. 35

b. 50

c. 5

d. 10

d. 10

The central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:

a. to level of T4.

b. 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.

c. at the vertebra prominens.

d. at the xiphoid process.

b. 3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.

For an AP portable chest on an older or hypersthenic male patient, which of the following should occur?

a. The image receptor generally should be placed lengthwise.

b. The CR should be centered 3 inches (8 cm) below the jugular notch.

c. The CR should be centered to the mammillary (nipple) line.

d. None of the above should occur.

b. The CR should be centered 3 inches (8 cm) below the jugular notch.

Which one of the following clinical indications often requires the inspiration/expiration chest series to be taken?

a. Chronic asthma

b. Small pneumothorax

c. Pneumoconiosis

d. Primary tuberculosis

b. Small pneumothorax

Pleurisy may be demonstrated radiographically by associated:

a. pleural effusion.

b. empyema.

c. pneumothorax.

d. silicosis.

a. pleural effusion.

What is a common radiographic sign seen on a chest radiograph for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

a. Enlargement of heart

b. Fluid in apices

c. Elevated diaphragm

d. Air bronchogram

d. Air bronchogram

Which type of body habitus typically requires that the image receptor be placed crosswise rather than lengthwise for a posteroanterior (PA) chest?

a. Hypersthenic

b. Asthenic

c. Sthenic

d. Hyposthenic

a. Hypersthenic

Geriatric patients generally require higher central ray (CR) centering than younger patients.

a. True

b. False

a. True - because their lungs tend to be more shallow due to less inhalation capabilities. Should also take kyphosis into consideration.

Top of image receptor placed approximately 3 inches (7.6 cm) above the shoulders is a recommended centering technique for adult chest radiography.

a. True

b. False

b. False - 1 ½ to 2 inches above the shoulders for the average size patient

Collimation guidelines indicate the upper border of the collimation field should be about 2 inches (5 cm) above the vertebra prominens.

a. True

b. False

b. False - upper border of collimation field should be at the level of vertebral prominens.

An electrocardiography and echocardiography are the same procedure.

a. True

b. False

b. False - electrocardiography looks at the electrical impulses of the heart,

Whereas echocardiography uses ultrasonic waves to study blood flow

Which of following statements is NOT true?
a. The angle of divergence of the left bronchus is greater than that of the right bronchus.
b. The left bronchus is more horizontal than the right bronchus.
c. The right bronchus is shorter than the left bronchus.
d. The right lung contains three lobes.

b. The left bronchus is more horizontal than the right bronchus.

A well-inspired average adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of ____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm.

a. 8

b. 7

c. 10

d. 1

c. 10

Which of the following objects does NOT have to be removed or moved before a chest radiography?

a. Necklace

b. Bra

c. T-shirt

d. Glasses

d. Glasses

A PA chest radiograph reveals that only seven ribs are seen above the diaphragm on a healthy adult. Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of lungs?

a. Use higher kV to penetrate the diaphragm.

b. Perform chest position supine.

c. Take exposure on the second inspiration rather than on first.

d. Use a shorter exposure time.

c. Take exposure on the second inspiration rather than on first.