N405 Quiz 1

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Last updated 12:30 AM on 7/5/26
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199 Terms

1
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A pregnant client reports a significant increase in saliva and asks the nurse for management strategies. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

Using oral lozenges.

2
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A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about gastrointestinal changes. Which statement should the nurse include regarding gastric acidity?

Acidity increases during the third trimester.

3
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A client at 32 weeks gestation reports intense skin itching (pruritus). The nurse understands this is likely related to which physiologic change?

Retained bile salts.

4
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A client presents for her first prenatal visit. She has a 3-year-old born at 38 weeks, a 1-year-old born at 34 weeks, and had a miscarriage at 12 weeks. She is currently pregnant. What is her GTPAL?

G4, T1, P1, A1, L2

5
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A woman gave birth to twins at 35 weeks gestation. How does this affect the 'P' and 'L' in the GTPAL system?

P is 1, L is 2.

6
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Using Naegele's rule, calculate the Estimated Date of Confinement (EDC) for a client whose last menstrual period began on October 15, 2025.

July 22, 2026

7
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A nurse notes a bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix during a pelvic exam. Which sign of pregnancy should the nurse document?

Chadwick Sign

8
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Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?

Auscultation of fetal heart tones.

9
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The nurse identifies the softening and compression of the lower uterine segment as which of the following?

Hegar Sign

10
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During a Non Stress Test (NST), the nurse observes 2 fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations within a 20-minute period. How should the nurse document this result?

Reactive

11
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Recurrent variable decelerations lasting 1 minute or longer during an NST are associated with which risk?

Increased C-section risk.

12
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A nurse sees a 'Variable Deceleration' on the monitor. What is the primary cause of this finding?

Umbilical Cord Compression

13
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What is the primary purpose of a transvaginal ultrasound during the first trimester?

Confirming cardiac function.

14
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At which week of gestation is a transabdominal ultrasound usually performed to screen for congenital malformations?

18-20 weeks

15
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Which study is used to examine the flow of blood in blood vessels to assess fetal well-being?

Doppler Flow Studies

16
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The nurse is teaching a client about the umbilical cord. Which information should be included?

It contains one vein and two arteries.

17
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What is the primary function of Wharton's Jelly in the umbilical cord?

Protection of vessels.

18
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In fetal circulation, which shunt allows blood to bypass the fetal liver?

Ductus Venosus

19
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Which structure in the fetal heart directs highly oxygenated blood from the right atrium directly into the left atrium?

Foramen Ovale

20
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A nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a student. Which side of the fetal heart has the greatest pressure?

Right Side

21
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What is the significance of closed fetal circulation?

Incompatible blood types.

22
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A client is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. The nurse should assess the newborn for which potential complication?

Failure of kidney development.

23
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Which condition is most commonly associated with polyhydramnios?

Poorly controlled maternal diabetes mellitus.

24
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What is considered the 'key function' of the placenta during pregnancy?

Respiration (oxygenation)

25
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The nurse notes that the side of the placenta facing the baby is which of the following?

Smooth

26
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Which placental hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the pregnancy and relaxing smooth muscle?

Progesterone

27
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An Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation requires which intervention to prevent maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?

Rho(D) Immune Globulin

28
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A client's rubella titer indicates she is not immune. What is the nurse's priority action?

Immunize Postpartum

29
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If a mother tests positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen, what should be administered to the infant after birth?

Immune globulin and vaccine.

30
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When is a vaginal-rectal culture for Group B Strep (GBS) typically performed?

Late in pregnancy.

31
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A client has a high glucose challenge test result. What is the next recommended step?

3 hour glucose tolerance test.

32
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At 3 weeks gestation, what is the status of the fetal nervous system?

Neural tube begins to close.

33
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During which week of fetal development do the heart tubes fuse and begin to contract?

3 weeks

34
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At 4 weeks gestation, which respiratory milestone occurs?

Tracheal development begins.

35
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A student nurse asks when upper extremity (UE) limb buds first appear. What is the correct answer?

4 weeks and they resemble flippers.

36
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At 6 weeks gestation, where is blood formation primarily occurring?

Liver

37
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At what week of development is the separation of the heart into four chambers complete?

6 weeks

38
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During the 6th week of gestation, where are most of the intestines located?

Umbilical Cord

39
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When does the development of the pituitary gland and cranial nerves begin?

6 weeks

40
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At 8 weeks gestation, what change occurs in the fetal nervous system regarding the spinal cord?

It stops at the end of the vertebral column.

41
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At which week is a heartbeat first detectable with an ultrasound?

8 weeks

42
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What is the status of the fetal intestines at 10 weeks gestation?

Contained within the abdominal cavity.

43
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At 10 weeks gestation, where is blood being produced?

Spleen and lymphatic tissue.

44
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A client at 12 weeks gestation is excited to hear the baby's heart. Which device should the nurse use?

Doppler

45
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At 12 weeks, what major renal milestone is reached?

Kidneys begin producing urine.

46
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Which integumentary feature begins to develop at the end of 12 weeks?

Downy Lanugo (fine, soft, unpigmented hair)

47
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When does implantation usually occur after conception?

6-10 days

48
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Where is the best place for implantation to occur in the uterus?

Upper Uterus

49
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A nurse is explaining urinary changes to a pregnant client. Which statement is correct regarding the kidneys?

GFR increases by 50%.

50
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Why is mild proteinuria common during pregnancy?

Increased GFR and volume.

51
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A pregnant client reports frequent nighttime urination. The nurse explains this nocturia is caused by what?

Release of retained sodium and water at night.

52
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Which position most effectively increases renal blood flow and GFR during pregnancy?

Left Side Lying

53
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A client is concerned about increased thirst and appetite. The nurse should explain that this is related to:

Normal GI Adaptation

54
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Which lab finding is expected during pregnancy due to hemodilution (increased plasma volume)?

Decreased Albumin

55
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Which trimester is associated with a 'decreased' risk for gastric ulcers?

Entire Pregnancy

56
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A woman has one child born at 39 weeks and is currently 10 weeks pregnant. What is her Gravida and Para?

G2, P1

57
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A client's LMP was December 20, 2025. What is the EDC?

September 27, 2026

58
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Which of the following is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

Amenorrhea

59
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A nurse is performing ballottement. This is categorized as which type of pregnancy sign?

Probable

60
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What is the criteria for a reactive NST?

2 accelerations in 20 minutes.

61
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A nurse is monitoring an NST and notices the test is nonreactive after 20 minutes. What is the next action?

Continue for 20 more minutes.

62
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A first trimester ultrasound shows the presence of a 'yolk sac'. When does this typically become visible?

Early in 6th week.

63
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What is the primary function of the umbilical arteries?

Return deoxygenated blood to placenta.

64
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Which shunt allows blood to move from the pulmonary artery into the descending aorta?

Ductus Arteriosus

65
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What happens to the fetal lungs and liver during pregnancy?

They do not function until birth.

66
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A client with oligohydramnios is at risk for which pulmonary issue in the fetus?

Poor fetal lung development.

67
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How does the placenta remove waste products from the fetus?

Simple Diffusion

68
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A CBC is performed during the first prenatal visit. What finding would require a follow-up?

WBC over 15,000

69
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A client's VDRL test is positive. What is the priority intervention?

Treat with antibiotics.

70
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At 3 weeks gestation, which germ layer forms the muscle, bone, and cartilage?

Mesoderm

71
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At 4 weeks gestation, what is the appearance of the embryo's cranial and caudal ends?

Neural tube is closed at each end.

72
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By week 6, which part of the eye is beginning to develop?

Eyelid

73
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At 8 weeks gestation, how do the male and female external genitalia appear?

Quite Similar

74
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At 10 weeks gestation, what is the position of the fetal ears?

Top of ear slightly below eye level.

75
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A client asks when her baby will have permanent tooth buds. The nurse knows this occurs at:

10 weeks

76
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Which reflex is present at 12 weeks gestation?

Sucking

77
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Why might a woman experience bleeding during implantation?

Uterus being imbedded.

78
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A client is concerned about protein in her urine. The nurse should explain that which level is common during pregnancy?

Mild Proteinuria

79
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What happens to the bladder capacity by the end of pregnancy?

It doubles.

80
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The nurse identifies the 'Chadwick sign' during a pelvic examination. Which category of pregnancy signs does this belong to?

Presumptive Sign

81
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A client at 16 weeks gestation reports feeling the baby move. How should the nurse document this finding?

Presumptive Sign: Quickening

82
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The nurse notes softening and compression of the lower uterine segment (isthmus) during an exam. How should this be documented?

Hegar Sign

83
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During an NST, the nurse notes variable decelerations that occur more than $3$ times in $20$ minutes. What is the priority nursing action?

Monitor for an extended period.

84
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What is the primary physiological cause of variable decelerations during fetal monitoring?

Umbilical cord compression.

85
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A client is scheduled for a second-trimester ultrasound at $19$ weeks. The nurse explains that the primary purpose of this scan is to evaluate which of the following?

Detect congenital malformations.

86
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A provider orders a 'Doppler Flow Study' for a high-risk client. The nurse understands this test is used to assess which of the following?

Placental Function

87
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Which shunt directs oxygenated blood from the right atrium directly into the left atrium?

Foramen OvaleWhat is the function of the 'Ductus Arteriosus'?

88
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What is the function of the 'Ductus Arteriosus'?

Shunts blood to the aorta.

89
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A client is diagnosed with 'Oligohydramnios'. The nurse knows this condition is associated with which fetal complication?

Failure of fetal kidney development.

90
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Which of the following is a characteristic of 'Polyhydramnios'?

Fluid volume exceeding 2000ml.

91
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Why does poorly controlled maternal diabetes often lead to Polyhydramnios?

Increased fetal urine excretion.

92
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A prenatal CBC shows a White Blood Cell (WBC) count of $18,000/mm^3$. What is the nurse's priority action?

Notify the provider for follow-up.

93
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At which gestational week is Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) typically administered to an Rh-negative client?

28 weeks

94
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When is the vaginal-rectal culture for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) usually performed?

Late in the third trimester, typically 35-37 weeks.

95
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During week $3$ of development, what critical structure begins to close to form the neural tube?

Neural Plate

96
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At which week of gestation does the embryonic heart typically begin to beat?

Week 4

97
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A client at 8 weeks gestation asks if the baby's fingers are formed. What is the nurse's best response?

Fingers are distinct by now.

98
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Fetal kidneys begin producing urine and excreting it into the amniotic fluid during which week?

Week 12

99
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The nurse explains that the risk of urinary stasis and infection increases during pregnancy due to which anatomical change?

Dilation of the renal pelvis.

100
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A client is 8 weeks pregnant. Which GI-related finding should the nurse anticipate?

Slowed gastric emptying that leads to heartburn and nausea.