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Host that harbor-the mature form of the parasite
a. Definitive Host
b. Intermediate host
c. Incidental Host
d. Paratenic Host
a. Definitive Host
Resistant stage of protozoans that is usually the infective stage
a. Trophozoite
b. Cyst
c. Ovum
d. Larva
e. Both B and C
b. Cyst
Which of the following parasites belong to Phylum Platyhelminthes?
i. Ascaris lumbricoides
ii. Schistosoma japonicum
iii. Fasciola hepatica
iv. Trichinella spiralis
a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. ii, iii
c. I only
d. iii only
e. i, iv
b. ii, iii
Which of the following is incorrect about Toxoplasmosis?
a. Toxoplasma gondii parasite primarily infects felines
b. Toxoplasma can cause severe birth defects to the unborn child
c. Infection among humans usually occurs by inhalation of infective tachyzoites in the cat feces
d. Serology remains the most cost-effective method for diagnosing toxoplasmosis
e. Immunocompromised patients may exhibit neurologic manifestations such as meningitis
e. Immunocompromised patients may exhibit neurologic manifestations such as meningitis
These are cysts that are 8 um in diameter, oval shaped with 4 blot like karyosomal masses outlined by clear spaces and appears cross eyed. This best describes which cyst?
a. Entamoeba polecki
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Endolimax nana
d. Chilomastix mesnili
e. Giardia lamblia
c. Endolimax nana
Babesia is a protozoan implicated among splenectomized patients. Morphologically, the parasite resembles
a. P. carinii oocysts
b. T. cruzi trophozoites
c. P. falciparum rings
d. L. donovani amastigotes
c. P. falciparum rings
Which of the following parasites can be transmitted to man via arthropod vectors?
i. Babesia
ii. Trypanosoma
iii. Onchocerca
iv. Anglostrongylus
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2 only
d. 4 only
e. All of the above
b. 1, 2, 3
A partially acid fast oocyst containing sporozoites was detected from a diarrheic stool. It measures approximately 4-6um. This is most likely
a. Cryptosporidium
b. Cyclospora
c. Isospora
d. Microsporidium
a. Cryptosporidium
A soil and water amoeba isolated from cases of meningoencephalitis is usually caused by?
a. Naegleria
b. Dientamoeba
c. Isospora
d. All of the above
a. Naegleria
West African Sleeping sickness is caused by?
a T. cruzi
b. T. gambiense
c. T. rhodesiense
d. B and C
e. T. donovani
b. T. gambiense
Which of the following parasitic infections are not usually diagnosed by recovering eggs or larvae in stool?
a. Ascariasis
b. Trichinosis
c. Capilllariasis
d. Strongyloidiasis
e. All can be diagnosed by the said method
e. All can be diagnosed by the said method
Which of the following possess a filariform larva with a bifid tail?
a. Hookworms
b. Threadworms
c. Blood flukes
d. Tapeworms
b. Threadworms
The following can be detected in a patient with Ascariasis, except:
a. Fertilized egg
b. Unfertilized egg
c. Adult stages
d. Embryonated egg
e. All can be detected
e. All can be detected
Which of the following parasites is capable of self fertilization?
a. S. stercoralis parasitic females
b. S. stercoralis free-living females
C. C. philippinensis parasitic females
d. E. vermicularis parasitic gravid females
a. S. stercoralis parasitic females
The Unholy Three"
1.Hookworm
2.Pinworm
3. Giant Intestinal Roundworm
4.Whipworm
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1 ,2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
Diagnostic Stage of W. bancrofti
a. Microfilaria: overlapping body nuclei, sheathed, terminal nuclei present
b. Microfilaria: evenly spaced body nuclei; unsheathed, no terminal nuclei
c. Microfitaria evenly spaced body nuclei sheathed; terminal nuclei absent d. Microfilaria: overlapping body nuclei, unsheathed; terminal nuclei present
e. L3 filiform larva in blood
c. Microfitaria evenly spaced body nuclei sheathed; terminal nuclei absent
Which of the following parasite and diagnostic tests are mismatched?
a. Trichinella spiralis: Direct Fecal Smear
b. Enterobius vermicularis: Cellophane Tape Preparation
c. Strongyloides: Baermann Techniqued Brugia malayi.
d. Knott's Concentration Technique
c. Strongyloides: Baermann Technique
Hydrocoele, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia and elephantiasis are indicative of?
a. Lymphatic filariasis
b. Onchocerciasis
c. Anisakiasis
d. Heterophylasis
a. Lymphatic filariasis
Mucolytic added to sputum samples needed for the diagnosis of paragonimiasis
a. 3% NaOH
b. HCI
c. Carold
d. Oxalic Acid
a. 3% NaOH
Helminth eggs that may resemble each other:
a. D. latum and P. westermani
b. O. sinensis and F. buski
c. T. saginata and H. nana
d. A. lumbricoides and Trichostrongylus
a. D. latum and P. westermani
Fish carrying metacercariae can transmit which parasite?
a. Clonorchis
b. Fasciolopsis
c. Paragonimus
d. Schistosoma
a. Clonorchis
The adult worm is described as flat, spatulate, with a large oral sucker, simple intestinal ceca and branched testes in tandem
Clonorchis sinensis
The adult worm is described as flat, with a gonotyl
Heterophyes heterophyes
The adult worm is described as flat, with collar spines surrounding the oral sucker
Echinostoma ilocanum
The adult worm is described as flat, leaf like, well developed shoulders and a prominent cephalic cone
Fasciola hepatica
Chronic infections of this fluke is highly associated with cholangiocarcinoma
Clonorchis sinensis
The infective stage of monoecious flukes to the final host
a Metacercaria
b. Cercaria
c. Miracdium
d. Embryonated egg
a Metacercaria
Which of the following flukes require a snail as a 2nd IH
a. Garrison's Fluke
b. Von Siebold's Fluke
c. Chinese Liver Fluke
d. Lancet Fluke
e. No match
a. Garrison's Fluke
Which of the following has a pitcher like egg
a. Garrison's Fluke
b. Von Siebold's Fluke
c. Chinese Liver Fluke
d. Lancet Fluke
e. No match
c. Chinese Liver Fluke
Which fluke possess the gonotyl
a. Garrison's Fluke
b. Von Siebold's Fluke
c. Chinese Liver Fluke
d. Lancet Fluke
e. No match
b. Von Siebold's Fluke
Drug of Choice for filariasis
a. Metronidazole
b. Mebendazole
c. diethylcarbamazine
d. Bithionol
c. diethylcarbamazine
Pseudofascioliasis can occur if:
a. Patients ingest the intermediate host containing the metacercaria
b. Ingestion of miracidium
c. Infection of infected cooked liver with eggs
d. Ingestion of infected liver with cercaria
d. Ingestion of infected liver with cercaria
Which of the following is not a part of an adult cestode?
a. Scolex
b. Neck
c. Proglottids
d. Copulatory appendages
e. All are parts of an adult cestode
d. Copulatory appendages
Which of the following is incorrect about cestodes?
a. Adult Cestodes appear as flat, ribbon like worms
b. Cestodes do not possess any digestive system
c. All cestodes are dioecious
d. Adult Cestodes inhabit the small intestine
a. Adult Cestodes appear as flat, ribbon like worms
How do you call the body of the tapeworm?
a. Scolex
b. Proglottid
c. Strobila
d. Neck
c. Strobila
Possess 4 cuplike acetabulum
a. Pseudophylidean Cestode
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
c. Both
d. Neither
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
Anapolytic
a. Pseudophylidean Cestode
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
c. Both
d. Neither
c. Both
Rostellar Hooks are present
a. Pseudophylidean Cestode
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
c. Both
d. Neither
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
Spatulate Scolex
a. Pseudophylidean Cestode
Eggs are operculated
a. Pseudophylidean Cestode
b. Cyclophylidiean Cestode
c. Both
d. Neither
d. Neither
Which of the following has an unarmed rostellum?
a. Dog Tapeworm
b. Rat tapeworm
c. Pork tapeworm
d. Madagascar worm
b. Rat tapeworm
Which of the following is incorrect about Echinococcus granulosus?
a. Eggs are detectable in humans
b. Tapeworm species possessing 3 proglottids
c. Humans are accidental intermediate hosts
d. Hydatid cysts are infective to the final host
e. All are true statements
c. Humans are accidental intermediate hosts
A thick shelled egg, spherical, contains a hexacanth embryo with polar thickenings but lacks polar filaments
a. H. nana
b. H. diminuta
c. T. saginata
d. E. granulosus
a. H. nana
Which of the following nematode is acquired from ingestion of inadequately cooked, infected pork?
a. S. stercoralis
b. T. spiralis
c. T. saginata
d. T. solium
d. T. solium
45. E. granulosus
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
46. T. saginata
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
47. H. diminuta
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
48. D. latum
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
49. D. caninum
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
b. tree-like uterine branches (gravid proglottid)
c. Rosette uterus; uterine pore
d. Brood capsule filled w/ protoscolex
e. Eggs: fried egg appearance
a. 2 genital pores on each segment
Mature eggs of an adult tapeworm accumulate in the
a. Neck
b. Ripe proglottid
c. Immature proglottid
d. Mature Proglottid
e. Scolex
b. Ripe proglottid
Complete virus particle with capsid:
a. Virion
b. hexon
c. nucleocapsid
d. Capsomere
a. Virion
Second intermediate host of Clonorchis sinensis:
a. snail
b. fish
c. crab
d. aquatic vegetations
b. fish
Eggs of Diphylobothrium latum:
a. With abopercular thickening
b. with operculum
c. With terminal spine
d. with mother capsule
b. with operculum
Tapeworm that is highly associated to megaloblastic anemia.
a. Taenia solium
b. Diphylobothrium latum
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinostoma ilocanum
b. Diphylobothrium latum
Gamma hemolytic, non motile, sporulating Gram positive bacteria
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Bacillus cereus
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. none of the above
a. Bacillus anthracis
Lepra cells are described as:
a. Neutrophil with ingested round body
b. Macrophages with ingested acid-fast bacilli
c. Monocyte with ingested round body
d. Neutrophil with precipitated rheumatold factor
b. Macrophages with ingested acid-fast bacilli
Fecal contamination of water is confirmed by the presence of
a. coliform organism
b. diphtehroids
c. streptococcus
d. Staphylococcus
a. coliform organism
The early stage of malarial parasites in red blood cells is called the
a. segmenter
b. schizont
c. ring form
d. sporozoite
c. ring form
The following parasite has fully developed eggs when passed in the stool:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Clonorchis sinensis
d. Fasclolopsis buski
c. Clonorchis sinensis
The etiologic agents of many common colds are RNA viruses known as
a. Paramyxoviruses
b. Adenoviruses
c. Rhinoviruses
d. Orthomyxoviruses
c. Rhinoviruses
The organism believed to be a cause of human peptic ulcer disease as well as the most frequent cause of gastritis is
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Salmonella typhimurium
b. Helicobacter pylori
The outstanding feature of Escherichia on EMB agar is its
a. mucoid state
b. irregular margin
c. greenish metallic sheen
d. large size
c. greenish metallic sheen
A Gram-negative, "Kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distinguishing characteristic of
a. Morganella species
b. Neisseria species
c. Bartonella species
d. Actinobacteria species
b. Neisseria species
The name associated with the antigenic scheme for the serologic identification of Salmonellae is
a. Kauffmann-White
b. Schlicter
a. Kauffmann-White
The ovum of this parasite hatches upon contact with water
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Heterophyes heterophyes
d. Metagonimus yokogaw
b. Schistosoma haematobium
Which of the following helminth eggs may be found in the urine?
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Schistosoma mansonl
d. Necator americanus
a. Schistosoma haematobium
The identifying characteristics of Plasmodium malariae infection are
a. crescent-shaped gametocytes (falciparum)
b. oval red blood cells (ovale)
c. Schuffner's dots (vivax)
d. band forms
d. band forms
One of the folowing organisms is NOT a gram positive coccus
a. Streptococci
b. Diplococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococci
d. Branhamella
d. Branhamella
Gram-negative motile rods with grayish spreading colonies on blood agar plate are
a. Salmonella
b. Proteus
c. Escherichia
d. Edardsiella
b. Proteus
A positive oxidase test on colonies containing Gram-negative diplococci will identify
a. only N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
b. Neisseria as a genus
c. N. gonnorhoeae but not N. meningitidis
d. only N. gonnorhoeae
b. Neisseria as a genus
Herpes simplex frequently produces
a. fever blisters
b. diarrhea
c. vomiting
d. Pneumonia
a. fever blisters
The etiologic agent of Qfever is
a. Rickettsia quintana
b. Rickettsia rickettsii
c. Coxiella burnetii
c. Coxiella burnetii
A positive catalase test is indicated by
a. production of pigment
b. gas production
c. clearing around the colonies
b. gas production
Trichinella spiralls are usually destroyed in pork by
a. refrigeration for 3 weeks
b. freezing at -15 for 20 days
c. 4-10 degrees Centigrade for 48 hours
d. cooking at 56°C
b. freezing at -15 for 20 days
The organism associated with the "traveler's diarrhea" is
a. Escherichia coli
b. Vibrio parahemolyticus
c. Proteus mirabilis
d. Shigella sonnei
a. Escherichia coli
Pfeiffer's bacillus
H. influenzae
Rat and mouse tapeworm
Hymenolepis diminuta
Koch's-Weeks bacillus
H. aegypticus; pink eye/conjunctivitis
Rocky mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii
Help maintain pH in vagina
Lactobacillus
Whooping cough
Bordetella pertussis (MAC, bordet-gengou)
- BCYE
- Pontiac fever
Legionella
Rabbit fever
Francisella tularensis
Small living organism
mycoplasma, ureaplasma
M. hominis
Pelvic inflammatory disease in sexually active people
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Walking pneumonia
Clostridium
Gas gangrene
C. botulinum
Clostridium spp. obtained thru ingestion of contaminated canned goods
C. tetani
Bacteria that causes lock jaw
Colorless
Color of shigella on SSA
Spiral -shaped that causes neurosyphilis
Treponema pallidum
Malonate positive result
Blue
Malonate negative result
Yellow or green
H2S indicator ng TSI
Ferrous sulfate, sodium thiosulfate
African Eye Worm
Loa loa
Organism that causes elephantiasis
Filarial worms
Pigment that P. aeruginosa produces
Pyocyanin
Pigment that S. marcescens produces
Prodigiosin
Lung fluke
P. westermani
Clue cells
Gardnerella vaginalis