Psychology quiz weeks 1-11

130 decibels is approximately the noise level of a: A. Subway train B. Gunshot C. Quiet room D. Hairdryer

Gunshot

If a violin and a flute play the exact same musical note then they will have the same: A. Timbre B. Sound C. Pitch D. Frequency spectrum

Pitch

A complex tone made by adding together a 400 Hz tone and a 600 Hz tone will have a fundamental frequency of: A. 200 Hz B. 400 Hz C. 600 Hz D. 1200 Hz

200 Hz

Sound shadows occurs for: A. High frequencies B. Complex tones C. Low frequencies D. Simple tones

High frequencies

Which of the following statements is true? A. The pinna can help you estimate the elevation of a sound source B. Timbre allows a person to estimate the distance to a sound source C. Interaural time differences allow you to estimate the elevation of a sound source D. If you stand close to a wall you will always hear a slight echo

The pinna can help you estimate the elevation of a sound source

Which of the following are NOT used to visually estimate the distance to an object? A. Monocular cues B. Oculomotor cues C. Haptic cues D. Binocular cues

Haptic cues

Which of the following is NOT an example of a monocular cue for depth perception? A. Accomodation B. Movement-based cues C. Steropsis D. Pictorial cues

Stereopsis

Which of the following is NOT an example of a pictorial cue for depth perception? A. Familiar and relative size B. Texture gradient C. Shadows D. Motion parallax

Motion parallax

For motion parallax, which of the following is true? A. Motion parallax is entirely determined by occlusion relationships B. Further objects appear to move faster than closer objects C. Further objects appear to move slower than closer objects D. The relative speed of an object depends on the point of fixation

Further objects appear to move slower than closer objects

Which of the following statements is true? A. Brighter objects often seems to be further away B. Accomodation is a monocular depth cue C. Under some circumstances, stereopsis can be achieved with just one eye D. If you fixate your nose for several seconds and then look at an object, it will appear closer than it really is

Accomodation is a monocular depth cue

Which of the following is NOT aided by colour perception? A. Finding berries B. Determine if fruit is ripe C. Determining if an animal is poisonous D. Estimate the distance to an object

Estimate the distance to object

A protanope lacks: A. S cones B. M cones C. Rods D. L cones

L cones

Tritanopes see the world in shades of: A. Blue and red B. Yellowish-green and red C. Green and red D. Blue and yellowish-green

Blue and red

Which of the following is NOT an opponent process channel: A. Yellow-blue B. Red-green C. Red-blue D. Black-white

Red-blue

Which of the following colours is impossible? A. A greenish yellow B. A bluish green C. A greenish red D. A yellowish red

A greenish red

Which of the following is NOT something that motion perception can do? A. Helps break camouflage B. Help us determine the structure of objects C. Help increase the apparent contrast of an object D. Help us interpret events

Help increase the apparent contrast of an object

A person with akinetopsia cannot: A. Perceive motion B. Perceive depth C. Perceive colour D. Solve the binding problem

Perceive motion

The water fall illusion is an example of: A. Depth perception causing motion perception B. Apparent motion C. Induced motion D. A motion after effect

A motion after effect

In the motion induced change blindness demo by Suchow & Alvarez (2011): A. Changing the colour of the disks caused the disks to appear to move slower B. Changing the colour of the disks caused the disks to appear to move faster C. Changes in colour were more obvious when the disks were moving D. Changes in colour were less obvious when the disks were moving

Changes in colour were less obvious when the disks were moving

Which of the following statements are true? A. Motion can make things appear heavier B. Motion can make things appear brighter C. Motion can make things disappear D. Motion can make things seem larger

Motion can make things disappear

What did TensorFlow’s InceptionV3 classifier think the image of a turtle was? A. A rifle B. A guitar C. A school bus D. A turtle

A rifle

Which of the following is NOT a reason why object perception is hard? A. Objects can sometimes have more than one name B. Objects can look different from different viewpoints and in different poses C. The stimuli on the retina are ambiguous D. Objects can be hidden or blurred

Objects can sometimes have more than one name

Structuralism posits that: A. Conscious awareness i more than the sum of the elementary sensations B. The nature of consciousness is, by its nature, unknowable C. Perception is based solely on sensations D. Sensations don’t entirely determine visual awareness

Perception is based solely on sensations

Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt law of grouping: A. Common cause B. Proximity C. Pragnanz D. Similarity

Common cause

Which property makes it more likely that a region will be perceive to be a figure as opposed to being perceived to be the ground? A. Being novel B. Being on top C. Being convex D. Being red

Being convex

A saccade is: A. An object at a fixation point B. A ballistic eye movement C. When the eyes are stationary D. An object closer than the fixation point

A ballistic eye movement

Salience is: A. The quality of being noticeable B. A method of camouflage C. A form of attention D. An auditory illusion

The quality of being noticeable

Posner (1978) found that: A. Attention speeds responses B. Attention slows responses but increases accuracy C. Attention had no effect on response times D. Attention slows responses and decreases accuracy

Attention speeds responses

The binding problem is: A. The problem of associating different attributes that corresponding to the same object B. The problem of associating images on the left retina with corresponding images on the right retina C. A misnomer D. The problem of associating a name of an object with the image of the object

The problem of associating different attributes that corresponding to the same object

Feature integration theory predicts that: A. Neither conjunction nor feature searches will be fast B. Feature searches will be fast but conjunction searchers will be slow C. Conjunction searchers will be fast but feature searches will be slow D. Both feature and conjunction searches will be fast

Feature searches will be fast but conjunction searchers will be slow

Franz Joseph Gall’s approach to determining personality based on the pattern of bumps on the skull is known as: A. Dualism B. Vivisection C. Galvanism D. Phrenology

Why is Paul Broca an important figure in the history of behavioural neuroscience? A. Because he emphasised the role of the head over the heart B. Because he was particularly focused on the relationship between the brain’s neurons and behaviour C. Because he linked an individual’s mental characteristics to physical locations and features of the head D. Because he linked specific regions of the brain to specific mental functions

Because he linked specific regions of the brain to specific mental functions

Imagine you are surfing and find yourself being chased by a shark. Which division of the nervous system would include the signals being sent through nerve fibers from the spinal cord to the leg muscles to help kick as fast as possible? A. Somatic nervous system B. Autonomic nervous system C. Central nervous system (CNS) D. Sympathetic nervous system

Somatic nervous system

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the goal of using electronic circuits to emulate neural structures in the human brain? A. The goal falls within the discipline terms “In Silico Neuroscience” B. It is a focus of the Human Brain Project C. This goal falls within the discipline termed “Neuromophic Computint” D. All options are correct

All options are correct

What is the term that best describes location A (at the top of brain): A. Ventral B. Lateral C. Caudal D. Dorsal

Dorsal

Together the hypothalamus and thalamus constitute the: A. Brainstem B. Forebrain C. Mesencephalon D. Diencephalon

Diencephalon

Which of the following statements about the corpus callosum is FALSE? A. Callosotomy is a procedure involving cutting the corpus callosum to stop severe epileptic seizures B. The corpus callosum permits communication of action potentials between the two cerebral hemispheres C. All axons of the corpus callosum corresponding regions of the two cerebral hemispheres D. The corpus callosum consists of a large bundle of axons connecting the two cerebral hemispheres

All axon of the corpus callosum connect corresponding regions of the two cerebral hemispheres

What feature of our environment is processed by the superior part of the temporal cortex? A. Odour B. Sound C. Texture D. Light

Sound

Which of the following statements concerning the resting membrane potential of a neurons is FALSE? A. Is about -70 mV B. Must remain at a fixed level during signal transmission C. The Extracellular fluid is more positively charged Thant the intracellular fluid D. The resting membrane potential is the voltage difference between the outside and inside of a neuron

Must remain at a fixed level during signal transmission

Once released, neurotransmitter molecules typically produce signals in postsynaptic neurons by: A. Activating the sodium-potassium pump B. Binding to postsynaptic receptors C. Triggering enzymatic deactivation D. Binding to presynaptic receptors

Binding to postsynaptic receptors

Which of the following answers best describes the action represented in box 6 (an antagonist drug binding to postsynaptic receptor): A. Drug blocks the release of neurotransmitter molecules from terminal buttons B. Drug binds to the postsynaptic receptors and either activates them or increases the effect of neurotransmitter molecules C. Drug blocks the synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules D. Drug binds to postsynaptic receptors and blocks the effect of neurotransmitter molecules

Drug binds to postsynaptic receptors and blocks the effect of neurotransmitter molecules

Imagine you are a neuropsychologist with a patient suffering from epilepsy. The patient is a musician and composer. The area requiring surgery is near the area responsible for auditory processing. You must help identify the region of the patient’s brain engaged when they listen to music pieces, so that it can be avoided in surgery. Which would be the best imaging methodology to use? A. Diffusion Tensor Imaging (DTI) B. Positron Emissions Tomography (PET) C. Functioning magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) D. Electroencephalography (EEG)

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

There are a number of different methods available to modify the brain? Which one of the following methods is LEAST likely to be used for the purpose of enhancement? A. Non-invasive electrical brain stimulation B. Pharmacology C. Non-invasive magnetic brain stimulation D. Ablation

Ablation

Imagine you are riding your bike to visit your friend’s house. Which part of the brain is responsible for thinking about the need to turn left at the approaching street corner? A. Primary motor cortex B. Prefrontal cortex C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe

Prefrontal cortex

Within the hippocampus Neurogenesis is believed to play an important role in: A. Synaptic plasticity B. Consolidation of long-term memories C. Long-term depression D. Replacement of damaged neurons

Consolidation of long-term memories

The portion of long-term memory that stores information relating to general knowledge is known as: A. Semantic memory B. Episodic memory C. Procedural memory D. Associative memory

Semantic memory

The form of amnesia that results in an inability to recall the events that occurred immediately prior to the accident in which the brain injury was sustained is called: A. Anterograde amnesia B. Dissociative amnesia C. Dense amnesia D. Retrograde amnesia

Retrograde amnesia

Damage to the hippocampus results in: A. Difficulties with retrieving long-term memories B. Working memory problems C. Difficulty with consolidating new memories D. Retrograde amnesia

Difficulty with consolidating new memories

Proactive interference occurs when: A. Previously learned information interferes with the ability to retrieve new information B. More recently learned information interferes with the ability to retrieve previously learned information C. Brain injury results in an inability to retrieve previously learned information D. Brain injury results in an inability to retrieve information learned since the time of the injury

Previously learned information interferes with the ability to retrieve new information

The component of long-term memory that stores information relating to learned cognitive and motor skills is: A. Semantic memory B. Procedural memory C. Declarative memory D. Non-declarative memory

Procedural memory

Damage to, or removal of, which brain structure(s) is most associated with the loss of the ability to retrieve newly acquired memories? What form of amnesia is this? A. Medial temporal lobes; retrograde amnesia B. Hippocampus; anterograde amnesia C. Frontal and temporal lobes networks; retroactive amnesia D. Amygdala; anterograde amnesia

Hippocampus; anterograde amnesia

Patient H.M. was unable to recall memories for events that occurred up to three years prior to his surgery, but his memory became increasingly better for older memories. What is this called, and what does it suggest about the process of memory consolidation? A. Temporally graded retrograde amnesia, suggesting that consolidation of declarative memories enables retrieval that is not dependent on the hippocampus B. Memory bump, suggesting that the oldest memories are resistant to damage to the hippocampus C. Proactive interference, suggesting that older consolidated memories interfere with the ability to recall more recently consolidated memories D. All options are correct

Temporally graded retrograde amnesia, suggesting that consolidation of declarative memories enables retrieval that is not dependent on the hippocampus

Atkinson and Shiffrin’s Multi-store Model of memory proposes that human memory can be divided into the following three storage systems: A. Sensory store, short-term store, and episodic store B. Perceptual store, procedural store, and declarative store C. Sensory store, episodic store and declarative store D. Sensory store, short-term store, and long term store

Sensory store, short-term store and long-term store

According to Baddeley’s model of working memory, processing in the phonological loop is based on: A. Visually coded representations B. Speech coded representations C. Sensory coded representations D. Propositonally coded representations

Speech coded representations

We transform information into a form that can be entered and retained by the memory system. This process is known as: A. Encoding B. Retrieval C. Storage D. Mnemonics

Encoding

In an experiment investigating the effect of levels of processing on recall for a list of written words, an example of deep level of encoding would be to ask participants to encode each word in the studied list by: A. Reporting how many consonants each word contains B. Deciding whether each word rhymes with another word C. Deciding whether each word is written in upper or lower case D. Reporting whether each word belongs to a stated category (eg animals)

Reporting whether each word belongs to a stated category (eg animals)

In Baddeley’s model of working memory, which name is used to refer to the system that directs attention towards current sensory inputs and selects information from long-term memory to relate it to current goals? A. Central executive B. Episodic buffer C. Phonological loop D. Visio-spatial sketchpad

Central executive

Better recall for items that occurred at the end of a studied list compared to earlier items in known as: A. The primacy effect B. The recency effect C. The serial position effect D. The list-length effect

The recency effect

The phonological loop is located in the ___ region of the brain; the visuo-spatial sketchpad is located in the ___ region of the brain A. Left temporal; right temporal B. Left frontal-temporal right occipital-parietal C. Prefrontal cortex; parietal cortex D. Medial-temporal; cerebellar

Left frontal-temporal; right occipital-parietal

In a classic experiment, Sperling (1960) presented a visual array of three rows of four consonants letters on a computer screen for 50 milliseconds. The visual array was followed by a tone indicating which row of letters to recall. By varying the ‘retention interval’ between the offset of the array of letters and the onset of the tone, Sperling demonstrated that: A. The capacity of iconic memory is approximately 9-12 items B. The duration of visual short-term memory can be increased by verbal recoding C. The duration of the iconic memory trace is approximately 500 milliseconds D. The capacity of short term memory is approximately 7± 2 items

The duration of the iconic memory trace is approximately 500 milliseconds

Sperling's full report method was intended to provide a measure of visual sensory memory capacity. However, the results underestimated the capacity of visual sensory memory because: A. the time required for verbal reporting of more than 3-4 letter names exceeded the duration of the iconic trace B. retroactive interference from reporting the names of the first 4 letters blocked retrieval of the names of the remaining letters C. proactive interference from earlier trials interfered with the ability to retrieve the letter names for the current trial D. the iconic trace decayed before participants all 12 letters were registered.

The time required for verbal reporting of more than 3-4 letter names exceeded the duration of the iconic trace

According to Atkinson and Shiffrin's multi-store model of memory, maintenance rehearsal is important for transferring information between which memory stores? A. Short-term to long-term memory B. All of the options are correct C. Sensory to short-term memory D. Long-term to short-term memory

Short-term to long-term memory

Which statement correctly describes how Sperling modified his partial report method to measure the duration of visual sensory memory, AND what is the estimated duration of the iconic trace using this method? A. Sperling systematically varied the number of letters in each line of the stimulus array to determine the maximum number of letters that could be reported. This method provides an estimate of 3-4 seconds for the duration of the iconic trace. B. Sperling systematically varied the presentation time of the stimulus display to determine the briefest duration at which all four letters could be recalled immediately from any of the rows when cued. This method provides an estimate of 50 milliseconds for the duration of the iconic trace. C. Sperling randomly varied the number of letters in each row of the stimulus display to determine the maximum number of letters that could be reported from any of the rows when cued. This method provides an estimate of 500 milliseconds for the duration of the iconic trace. D. Sperling systematically varied the duration of the retention interval between the off-set of the stimulus array and the onset of the cued line. This method provides an estimate of 500 milliseconds for the duration of the iconic trace.

Sperling systematically varied the duration of the retention interval between the off-set of the stimulus array and the onset of the cued line. This method provides an estimate of 500 milliseconds for the duration of the iconic trace.

The capacity and duration of a memory system refer to which properties of memory, respectively? A. Capacity refers to the strength the memory traces within a given memory system; duration refers to the retention interval. B. Capacity refers to the length of time that memory traces persist; duration refers to the amount of information that the system can store. C. Capacity refers to the amount of information that can be attended to at any given moment; duration refers to the strength of the memory trace. D. Capacity refers to the amount of information that the system can store; duration refers to the length of time that memory traces within a system persist.

Capacity refers to the amount of information that the system can store; duration refers to the length of time that memory traces within a system persist.

Encoding is the memory process that: A. enables information to be registered, interpreted and integrated into memory B. All of the options are correct C. enables information to be retained in a relatively permanent memory trace D. consolidates information in memory

Enables information to be registered, interpreted and integrated into memory

Atkinson and Shiffrin's multi-store model of memory includes which of the following memory systems? A. episodic memory, semantic memory, procedural memory B. sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory C. iconic memory, echoic memory, sensory memory D. All of the options are correct

Sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory

Retrieval is the memory process that: A. reconstructs information stored in memory to enable understanding and/or responding in the present moment. B. brings information from the past to conscious awareness C. consolidates memories so that they can be recalled at a later time D. recovers information stored in memory in the precise form in the precise form in which it was encoded

Reconstructs information stored in memory to enable understanding and/or responding in the present moment

Helen always drives down Johnston St to go to the University campus.  One morning she discovers that Johnston St is closed because of road works so she immediately makes a u-turn and takes a different route to the campus.  How would psychologist Edward Tolman explain Helen’s behaviour? A. She is classically conditioned to respond to signs B. She has formed a cognitive map of the area enabling her to reason about alternative routes to her destination. C. Helen was likely to be imitating the actions of others in the same situation. D. The road works were a reliable predictor of danger

She has formed a cognitive map of the area enabling her to reason about alternative routes to her destination

Which option best describes Tolman's concept of latent learning? A. Learning that occurs through direct experience of reinforcement and punishment B. Learning that results in a mental representation of a spatial environment C. Learning that occurs through observation of a model D. Learning that is not immediately demonstrated in observable behaviour

Learning that is not immediately demonstrated in observable behaviour

Tolman's study of latent learning challenged the traditional behaviourist account of learning by demonstrating that: A. learning must involve reinforcement B. learning must involve both reinforcement and punishment C. learning can occur in the absence of rewards and punishments D. learning usually takes about 11 days to occur

Learning can occur in the absence of rewards and punishments

In Bandura's bobo-doll experiment, how did the children's behaviour change when an incentive was offered for them to reproduce the behaviours they had observed? A. The children in each group maintained the same performance they had shown when no incentive was offered B. Children in the model-rewarded and no-consequences groups demonstrated more of the aggressive behaviours than children in the model-punished group C. Children in the model-punished group were able to demonstrate more of the behaviours than children in the model-rewarded and no-consequences group D. Children in all groups were able to demonstrate they had learned the aggressive behaviours equally well

Children in all groups were able to demonstrate they had learned the aggressive behaviours equally well

In the no-incentive condition of Bandura’s Bobo doll experiment, the children who had observed the adult model being punished for aggressive behaviour were: A. equally likely to perform the aggressive actions they had observed as children in the model rewarded and no-consequences conditions B. more likely to perform the aggressive actions they had observed than children who had seen no consequences and children who had seen the model reinforced C. less likely to perform the aggressive actions they had observed than children who had seen no consequences and children who had seen the model reinforced D. less likely to perform the aggressive actions they had observed than children who had seen the model rewarded but were more likely to reproduce the aggressive behaviours than children who had observed the adult receive no consequences

less likely to perform the aggressive actions they had observed than children who had seen no consequences and children who had seen the model reinforced

In operant conditioning terms, any event whose presence decreases the likelihood that a behaviour will occur in future is known as: A. Conditioned reinforcement B. Negative reinforcement C. Punishment D. Positive reinforcement

Punishment

Negative reinforcement _________ the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated, and punishment _________ the likelihood of a behaviour being repeated. A. Decrease; increase B. Increase; increase C. Decrease; decrease D. Increase; decrease

Increases; decreases

“Okay, that was good!  Now this time, try not to close your eyes.  Keep your eye on the ball, so you know when to close your hands,” Mark says in the process of teaching his daughter to play catch.  In operant conditioning terms, Mark is using ______ to teach his daughter how to catch a ball. A. Negative reinforcement B. Spontaneous recovery C. Shaping D. Extinction

Shaping

Which option is true of behaviour that has been reinforced using partial reinforcement? A. is more likely to last longer when followed by continuous reinforcement B. It can be extinguished more quickly than continuously reinforced behaviour C. It tends to last longer than continuously reinforced behaviour D. all of the options are true

It tends to last longer than continuously reinforced behaviour

Lisa's mother removes the ban she had placed on Lisa's social-media use after Lisa shows that she can behave responsibly. This is an example of: A. Negative reinforcement B. Positive reinforcement C. Positive punishment D. Negative punishment

Negative reinforcement

In his original studies of digestion, Pavlov placed food on a dog’s tongue to make the dog salivate.  In this situation, the dog’s salivating is: A. Conditioned response CR B. Unconditioned response UCR C. A discriminative stimulus D. Conditioned stimulus CS

Unconditioned response (UCR)

The phenomenon of “extinction” in classical conditioning is due to: A. a weakening of the UCS-UCR relationship B. unlearning of the CS-UCS association C. changes in the UCS-UR relationship D. learned inhibition of the CS-UCS association

learned inhibition of the CS-UCS association

Initially, an infant has no response to a nurse’s white uniform. After a couple of painful experiences getting a vaccination from a nurse in a white uniform, the infant reacts with fear in response to a nurse in a white uniform who simply walks into the examining room.  In this example, the sight of a nurse in a white uniform has become _______ to the infant. A. Unconditioned response UCR B. Conditioned stimulus CS C. Unconditioned stimulus UCS D. Conditioned response CR

Conditioned stimulus CS

In Pavlov's study of classical conditioning, what term applies to salivation when it occurs to the sound of the bell alone? A. Reflex response B. Unconditioned response C. Learned response D. Conditioned response

Conditioned response

Which option best describes spontaneous recovery of a classically conditioned response? A. The return of a conditioned response after a period of extinction when the conditioned stimulus is presented on its own. B. The return of a conditioned response after a period of extinction when the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus are reintroduced. C. The ability, after a period of extinction, to relearn the association between a conditioned and unconditioned stimulus more quickly than when the association was originally acquired D. All options correct

The return of a conditioned response after a period of extinction when the conditioned stimulus is presented on its own.

In Classical Conditioning, the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS) is a stimulus that: A. Is followed by rewarding consequences B. Always produces an associated reflex response C. Signals, or predicts, the occurrence of the CR D. Comes to produce a reflex response via association with the CS

Always produces an associated reflex response

In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, what will eventually occur? A. Extinction B. Stimulus generalisation C. Spontaneous recovery D. Stimulus discrimination

Extinction