CO POST Study Guide

This Supreme Court case established the Exclusionary Rule and said that probable cause must be used to gain a search warrant. If not, the search will be illegal and evidence collected as a result of the search can't be used in court.

A. New York v. Belton
B. Gideon v. Wainright
C. People v. Disher
D. Weeks v. US

D. Weeks v. US

Police Officers may question a suspect that has an attorney already, about crimes for which he has been charged if the Police Officer(s) provide Miranda Warnings again and the suspect subsequently waives his rights.

A. People v. Disher
B. Montejo v. Louisiana
C. Illinois v. Cabellas
D. Graham v. Connor

B. Montejo v. Louisiana

Only when the officer, by means of physical force or show of authority, has in some way restrained the liberty of a citizen may we conclude that a:

a. excessive force has occurred
b. a stop has occurred
c. a seizure has occurred
d. a detention has occurred

c. a seizure has occurred

Officers in a patrol car pursued the defendant after they observed the defendant run when he saw the patrol car. The pursuit consisted of a brief acceleration to catch up to the defendant followed by a short drive alongside the defendant. The Court said this was:

a. an illegal stop
b. not a stop and therefore constitutional
c. an illegal contact
d. a constitutional seizure

b. not a stop and therefore constitutional

A law enforcement officer may. stop and briefly detain a person for investigation purposes if the officer has reasonable suspicion supported by:

a. articulate-able facts
b. information provided by an anonymous caller
c. good cause
d. contemporaneous factors related to the seizure

a. articulate-able facts

All formal arrests must be based on:

a. reasonable suspicion
b. reasonable grounds
c. probable cause
d. the totality of the circumstances

c. probable cause

When determining whether to frisk a suspect, officers must base their decisions on the ______________ standard.

a. reasonably prudent man
b. safety
c. two-officer
d. police officer

b. safety

Which of the following are considerations in deciding to frisk a person?

I. suspect is nervous or edgy
II. there is a bulge in the suspect's clothing
III. suspect's hand is concealed in his clothing
IV. suspect does not have an adequate explanation for his suspicious behavior

A. I and ll are correct
B. I, II, and III are correct
C. I, II, III, and IV are correct

C. I, II, III, and IV are correct

The scope of a frisk must be limited to the:

a. necessity to discover contraband
b. necessity to discover weapons
c. necessity to discover drugs
d. necessity to discover illegal items

b. necessity to discover weapons

A frisk must initially be limited to a pat down of the outer clothing. If a weapon-like object is detected or if a non-threatening object's identity as contraband is immediately apparent to the officer's sense of touch, the officer:

a. must ask the individual for consent and then retrieve the object
b. must secure a warrant prior to any search
c. may reach inside the clothing or pocket and seize the object
d. may arrest the individual first and then seize the object incident to the arrest

c. may reach inside the clothing or pocket and seize the object

An officer is not required to ask any questions before frisking a suspect if the nature of the crime being investigated is:

a. violent and the officer has a reasonable fear for his own safety
b. recent and the officer knows the suspect
c. non-violent and has personal knowledge of the suspect
d. has reasonable suspicion that the suspect committed the crim

a. violent and the officer has a reasonable fear for his own safety

Are Miranda warnings required to be given before questioning in connection with a
stop?

a. yes
b. no

b. no

An officer should never perform a stop and frisk on a person of the opposite sex.

A. True
B. False

B. False

In Chimel v. California, the Supreme Court ruled on a new exception to searches incident to arrest. The Court stated that officers could search:

a. anywhere the suspect was arrested
b. "look around" in a house where the suspect was arrested
c. could search the area within the immediate control of the suspect
d. the court requires a warrant for all searches

c. could search the area within the immediate control of the suspect

A full search of the arrestee's body allows the search and seizure of items of evidence or weapons immediately associated with the arrestee's body, such as clothing, billfolds, and wristwatches.

A. True
B. False

A. True

Under Chimel rule, officers may also search:

a. arrestee's companions
b. only those person's that present a danger
c. only in the area of immediate control of the companion
d. none of the above apply

b. only those person's that present a danger

To perform a search incident to an arrest, an officer must:

a. make any type of arrest of the suspect
b. make a lawful custodial arrest of the suspect
c. may make a lawful arrest by issuance of a su1nmons only
d. may make an arrest by specific performance

b. make a lawful custodial arrest of the suspect

In general, a search incident to an arrest must be:

a. done at exactly the same time as the arrest
b. must be contemporaneous with any other search
c. must be contemporaneous with the arrest
d. must be contemporaneous with the consent of the arreste

c. must be contemporaneous with the arrest

If the police momentarily detained a suspect, for a fingernail scraping at the scene:

a. this is a seizure and not admissible
b. this is a seizure and admissible
c. this is not a seizure but is admissible
d. this is a violation of the suspect's 4th amendment rights and a warrant was required, therefore it will be suppressed in court

b. this is a seizure and admissible

The consent search is frequently used by law enforcement officers because:

I. it is faster
II. it does not require probable cause
III. convenient to the suspect
IV. consent may be withdrawn at any time

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

C. I, II, and III are correct

The test for the validity of a consent search is the _________ of the consent under all circumstances.

a. voluntariness
b. knowledge
c. mens rea
d. contemporaneousnes

a. voluntariness

Which of the following are factors that may invalidate a consent search?

I. force or threats of force
II. misrepresentation or deception (other than being an undercover officer)
III. show of force and authority
IV. lateness of the hour

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, Ill, and IV are correct

D. I, II, Ill, and IV are correct

The scope (when, where, length of time, etc.) of the consent is generally determined by:

a. the person giving consent
b. the officers doing the search
c. item searched for
d. the court

a. the person giving consent

Consent to search may be revoked or withdrawn:

a. at any time after the consent has been given
b. at any time before the search actually begins
c. consent may not be withdrawn once it is given
d. once consent is given it is deemed to be a contractual issue and cannot be withdrawn

a. at any time after the consent has been given

The key word(s) the Supreme Court looks for in determining who may give a valid consent is:

a. ownership of the property
b. joint access/ joint control
c. persons having equal rights in the property
d. possessory/proprietary rights

b. joint access/ joint control

Personal property, such as a duffel bag, can never be considered "joint" property of another.

A. True
B. False

B. False

The reason school authorities need only reasonable grounds to search a student's locker or vehicle upon school grounds is:

I. school has an obligation to maintain discipline over students \
II. school retains partial right to have access to lockers
III. school has a duty to protect other students from dangerous instrumentality's
IV. limited expectation of privacy interests by students on school property

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

A parent may not consent to search of an area of the parent's home occupied by the child, if the child uses the room exclusively, has sectioned it off, has furnished it with his own furniture or pays rent.

A. True
B. False

A. True

"If the police are lawfully in a position from which they view an object, if its incriminating character is apparent, and if the officers have a lawful right of access to the object, they may seize it without a warrant." This is a definition of:

a. consent doctrine
b. plain view doctrine
c. probable cause doctrine
d. fruit of the poisonous tree doctrin

b. plain view doctrine

The plain view doctrine allows the warrantless seizure of incriminating evidence observed after a prior justification for an intrusion, whether that justification be a warrant for another object, hot pursuit, or a search incident to an arrest.

A. True
B. False

A. True

The term contraband should be interpreted to include which of the following?

I. property that constitutes evidence of the commission of a criminal act
II. fruits of a crime
III. things criminally possessed (contraband)
IV. property designed for or intended for use in committing a crime

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

In which court case did the US Supreme Court apply the principles of the plain view doctrine to a situation in which a law enforcement officer discovered contraband through the sense of touch during an otherwise lawful search?

a. South Dakota v. Opperman
b. Mimms v. Pennsylvania
c. Minnesota v. Dickerson
d. Chimel v. California

c. Minnesota v. Dickerson

The Carroll Doctrine holds that a warrantless search of the motor vehicle stopped on the public ways by a law enforcement officer who has probable cause to believe that the vehicle contains items subject to seizure is not unreasonable under the 4th Amendment.
The controlling considerations are:

a. only mobility
b. mobility and probable cause
c. mobility and reasonable suspicion
d. motor vehicle and just cause

b. mobility and probable cause

Under the Carroll Doctrine, if officers have probable cause to search an entire vehicle for a specific seizable item, they may search to the same extent as if they had a warrant to search for the item.

A. True
B. False

A. True

If an officer has probable cause to search an entire vehicle for a particular object under the Carroll Doctrine, the officer may look anywhere in the vehicle in which there is probable cause to believe the object may be found, including closed containers that could contain the object.

A. True
B. False

A. True

The controlling case concerning inventory searches of vehicles is:

a. Colorado v. Bertine
b. Illinois v. Lafayette
c. People v. Counterman
d. Katz v. United States

c. People v. Counterman

The justification for an inventory search is:

a. probable cause to search for evidence
b. impoundment of vehicle
c. reasonable suspicion
d. reasonable grounds

b. impoundment of vehicle

A person has a greater expectation of privacy in a vehicle if it is also capable of
functioning as their home.

A. True
B. False

B. False

In Colorado, the use of dogs specially trained to detect the smell of drugs in a vehicle does not violate the reasonable expectation of privacy of the vehicle's owner so long as the officer can articulate reasonable suspicion to utilize the dog.

A. True
B. False

A. True

The "Open Fields Doctrine" allows law enforcement to search for and seize evidence because:

a. there is no reasonable expectation of privacy
b. it's open to the public
c. it's not within the curtilage
d. it's accessible to anyone

a. there is no reasonable expectation of privacy

Which of the following factors may determine whether property to be searched falls within the curtilage of a home:

I. there is no reasonable expectation of privacy
II. it's open to the public
III. it's not within the curtilage
IV. it's accessible to anyone

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

The primary focus on the determination of the curtilage is:

a. size of area considered
b. if intimate activities and privacies take place in that area
c. suburban or rural setting
d. if any criminal activity is taking place in those intimate areas

b. if intimate activities and privacies take place in that area

Open fields are not constitutionally protected area and therefore the officer may not only seize items that are open to view, but may search for items hidden from view and seize them.

A. True
B. False

A. True

Which of the following will meet the requirements of the abandoned property doctrines?

I. leaving property unattended for a long period of time
II. disclaimer of interest
III. discarding property
IV. turning property over to law enforcement

A. I is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II, and III are correct
D. I, II, III, and IV are correct

C. I, II, and III are correct

All involuntary statements are considered to be untrustworthy or unreliable.

A. True
B. False

A. True

Which of the following is the type of conduct (by police) that is NOT violative of due process?

a. second attempt to get a written statement from a suspect once he has invoked his 6th Amendment rights to counsel .
b. confinement of the suspect in a small space
c. continued interrogation of an injured suspect
d. second attempt to get a written statement from a suspect once he has invoked his 5th Amendment rights to remain silent

d. second attempt to get a written statement from a suspect once he has invoked his 5th Amendment rights to remain silent

The Miranda decision requires that once a suspect is the focus of a criminal investigation, that suspect must be advised of his Miranda rights.

A. True
B. False

B. False

Which of the following locations would be the most likely to be considered non-custodial during an interrogation of a person?

a. suspect's home
b. suspect's business
c. public place
d. public premise

a. suspect's home

Which of the following statements require a suspect to be Mirandized?

a. volunteered statements/excited utterances
b. questions related to public safety
c. spontaneous questions
d. custodial statements

d. custodial statements

The 6th Amendment right to counsel, unlike the 5th Amendment right to counsel is offense specific. Invocation of the 6th Amendment right bars policy-initiated interrogation regarding only the offense at issue.

A. True
B. False

A. True

The Miranda warnings must be given in the exact form described in the Miranda decision so that the suspect knows exactly what his/her rights are.

A. True
B. False

B. False

Most courts have held that once a suspect has been informed of his Miranda rights and indicate an understanding of those rights, choosing to speak without a lawyer present is sufficient evidence of a
knowing and voluntary waiver of their rights.

A. True
B. False

A. True

When reckless driving causes bodily injury, what is the charge?

A. Vehicular Assault
B. 2nd Degree Assault
C. 1st Degree Assault
D. 3rd Degree Assault

D. 3rd Degree Assault

You respond to a call where a male party on an RTD bus began screaming and yelling at other passengers on the bus. The bus driver was forced to pull the bus over and when he did, the male party refused to exit the bus. The male part continued to scream at passengers, threatening them with physical harm, but did not touch anyone. The driver of the bus grabbed the male party and forcefully removed him from the bus, causing the male party pain in the process. What crime is the driver guilty of?

A. 2nd Degree Assault
B. 3rd Degree Assault
C. Harassment
D. No Crime. The driver has the right to maintain order on the bus pursuant to CRS 18-1-703

D. No Crime. The driver has the right to maintain order on the bus pursuant to CRS 18-1-703

A male party is walking through a neighborhood with a butcher knife, screaming that he wants to die and cutting themselves with the knife. The male has not threatened anyone and is only hurting himself. The male begins cutting himself on the neck, cutting deeper and deeper each time. A resident of the neighborhood walks out of his house and sees this. The neighbor fears the man will kill himself if he continues to cut himself and approaches the man from behind, hitting very hard one time and knocking him unconscious and leaving a small cut on the back of the disturbed male's head. What crime did the resident of the neighborhood commit?

A. 1st Degree Assault, Weapon Involved.
B. 3rd Degree Assault
C. Disorderly Conduct
D. No Crime

D. No Crime

A male has been going to a bar for several years, and has issues with several gang members that frequent the bar. The male is sick of dealing with the gang members and challenges the leader to a fight outside the bar. The two parties go into the parking lot and the gang member immediately punches the male in the face, knocking him to the ground. The male, realizes he can't win the fight with the more powerful gang member, reaches into his pocket, pulls out a knife and stabs the gang member, killing him. What crime has the male committed.

A. No Crime, self defense
B. 1st Degree Murder
C. 2nd Degree Murder
D. Disorderly conduct for agreeing to fight, but no charges for self defense.

B. 1st Degree Murder

In which situation can deadly force NOT be used by a Peace Officer?

A. The peace officer is attempting to stop a convicted felon from escaping who is a definite threat to the public if allowed to escape.
B. When an officer steps in front of a suspect vehicle that is trying to flee from the scene and is now going to run over the officer.
C. The peace officer is attempting to arrest a sex assault subject who is armed with a knife.
D. The peace officer is not justified in any of the above mentioned circumstances.

B. When an officer steps in front of a suspect vehicle that is trying to flee from the scene and is now going to run over the officer.

How many days does a peace officer have to report a potential excessive force circumstance from another officer?

A. 15 days as long as supervisor is notified within 24 hours.
B. By the end of the work shift the incident occurred.
C. 10 days
D. Depends on the severity of the abuse and is taken on a case by case basis.

C. 10 days

Which would not be an element of Serious Bodily Injury 18-1-901?

A. 1st Degree Burns
B. Injury which leads to a substantial risk of death.
C. Risk of loss or impairment of the function of any organ.
D. Breaks or fractures

A. 1st Degree Burns

Which constitutional amendment prevents a peace officer from using excessive force?

A. 1st
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 8th

C. 4th

Several people have gathered in front of the police station to protest the actions of officers. They are not interfering with the operations of the police station, but are very adamant about their disagreement with the agency. Is this protected by the constitution and by which amendment?

A. No, the actions are hindering a government operation.
B. Yes, the 1st amendment protects these actions.
C. Yes, depending on local laws and not the constitution
D. Yes, the 2nd amendment protects these actions

B. Yes, the 1st amendment protects these actions.

The definition for at risk adults includes:

A. Any person who is 60 years or older with a disability, or a person over 18 with a disability.
B. Any person with a serious disability regardless of age.
C. Any person who is 18 or over with a disability, or one who is 70 years or older.
D. Any person who is 60 years of age or older or any person who is 18 years of age or older and is a person with a disability.

C. Any person who is 18 or over with a disability, or one who is 70 years or older.

The definition of an at risk juvenile is:

A. Any person that is 16 years or younger with a disability.
B. Any person who is under 18 years of age.
C. Any person who is 15 years of age or younger with a disability.
D. Any person who is under the age of 18 with a disability.

D. Any person who is under the age of 18 with a disability.

According to 18-6.5-102 which of the following is NOT included as a definition for a "Person with a Disability"?

A. Loss of a hand
B. Uses a cane or walker
C. Loss of sight
D. Both A and B

B. Uses a cane or walker

A caretaker is taking care of an at risk 17 year old female and digitally penetrates the patient. What crime can they be charged with?

A. Sex Assault on a Child (18-3-405) since the patient is under 18 years of age.
B. Unlawful Sexual Contact
C. Sex Assault on a Child by one in a Position of Trust (18-3-405.3) because the patient is under 18.
D. Just Sex Assault because the patient is older than 15 years old.

C. Sex Assault on a Child by one in a Position of Trust (18-3-405.3) because the patient is under 18.

Who may execute writs (Judicial Orders) according to 30-10-515?

A. Any certified peace officer who is ordered by the court
B. Any peace officer as long as it is within the limits of their jurisdiction.
C. Only Sheriff's or their designees
D. Both Sheriff's designees and municipal officers in their jurisdictions.

C. Only Sheriff's or their designees

When must a peace officer serve a Temporary Protection Order?

A. Only when party needing the protection order served has paid the fees through the courts and has proof of payment
B. Must be within 48 hours of issuance by court, or with approved extension.
C. Any time when an officer receives a call for service to do so.
D. Anytime, but only by a sheriff's deputy.

C. Any time when an officer receives a call for service to do so.

The statute of limitations for a misdemeanor is (16-5-401):
A. 1 year
B. 6 months
C. 18 months
D. No limit

C. 18 months

The statute of limitation for Forgery is:
A. 1 year
B. 6 months
C. 18 months
D. No limit

D. No limit

What is the statute of limitations for a general felony in the state of Colorado?
A. 18 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

C. 3 years

Officer Craig received information from an informant in September tat Amy was in possession of marijuana when he last contacted her in December. Officer Craig knows Amy's last known address from his previous contact and decides to interview her and reference the information he received. Amy admits to having less than an ounce in her possession during his last contact.

A. Officer Craig can issue Amy a misdemeanor summons for possession of marijuana less than an ounce.
B. Officer Craig places Amy into custody and transports her to fingerprint and photograph her possession of marijuana less than one ounce.
C. Officer Craig writes an incident report and files it with his PD.
D. Officer Craig was not able to file any report, the statute of limitation has been exceeded.

A. Officer Craig can issue Amy a misdemeanor summons for possession of marijuana less than an ounce.

Officer Luna goes into a meeting with her supervisor. Her supervisor gives her two copies of an evaluation. The first evaluation is what her score should be, the second copy shows what her score could be if she has sex with him. This would be best described as:

A. Workplace Harassment
B. Quid Pro Quo Sexual Harassment
C. Hostile Work Environment Sexual Harassment
D. Employee / Supervisor Relations

B. Quid Pro Quo Sexual Harassment

Bob and Judy are hanging out and Bob begins playing with his new gun, accidentally discharging it while he is pointing it at Judy and she dies. What crime has Bob committed?

A. Reckless Endangerment
B. 2nd Degree Homicide
C. Criminally Negligent Homicide
D. 1st Degree Assault

C. Criminally Negligent Homicide

Steve is upset when officers arrive and attempt to arrest his girlfriend Donna for a warrant. While officers are attempting to place Donna into handcuffs, Steve squares off on the officer and tells them to "Keep their damn hands off my girl or I will kick your ass." What crime has Steve committed? (Resisting arrest goes to the act of arrest whereas the obstruction charge is more general.)

A. 2nd Degree Assault on a Peace Officer
B. 3rd Degree Assault on a Peace Officer
C. Obstruction of Justice
D. Resisting Arrest

D. Resisting Arrest

Which is NOT an element of 1st Degree Murder?

A. With extreme indifference to the value of human life.
B. Perjury where the lies result in conviction and execution of an innocent person.
C. With intent and after deliberation
D. Cause the death of a child under the age of 16 while in a position of trust.

D. Cause the death of a child under the age of 16 while in a position of trust.

John is operating his vehicle and is driving in and out of an oncoming traffic, onto curbs, and driving 20 miles over the speed limit. John crashes his car into another vehicle as a result of his driving and causes the driver of the other vehicle to break their ribs and arms. At the hospital, the doctor believes there is SBI to the other driver. What crime has been committed?

A. Reckless Endangerment
B. 1st Degree Assault
C. Vehicular Assault
D. Careless Driving

C. Vehicular Assault

Criminal Attempt requires what?

A. A substantial step
B. An agreement or commitment
C. An overt act
D. Two or more persons planning a criminal act

A. A substantial step

What age must someone be to be found guilty of a crime?

A. 16
B. 18
C. 10
D. 12

C. 10

Which is not a necessary element for Vehicular Homicide (18-3-106)?

A. Intended to kill the victim
B. Driving under the influence
C. Conduct is the proximate cause of death
D. Reckless driving

A. Intended to kill the victim

How many people must be involved for a situation to be considered a riot?

A. 4+
B. 3+
C. 5+
D. 6+

B. 3+

An officer has reasonable suspicion to believe that Ted committed a theft at a local convenience store a few minutes earlier. Which of the following statements correctly describes the officer's lawful authority?

A. The officer cannot stop Ted's vehicle because he does not have probable cause
B. The officer cannot stop Ted's vehicle because to do so would be a seizure.
C. The officer can stop Ted's vehicle because to do so would not be a seizure.
D. The officer can stop Ted's vehicle because he has reasonable suspicion

D. The officer can stop Ted's vehicle because he has reasonable suspicion

Gravely disabled means all of the following except (27-10-105(5)):

A. A person with mental illness who is in danger of physical harm due to their ability to care for themselves.
B. A person who lacks judgment to manage their resources and conduct of social situations and does not realize this.
C. A person of any age who is gravely disabled, but not including mentally retarded persons alone.
D. Someone with substantial cognitive, volitional or emotional disorder that impairs their ability to recognize reality.

D. Someone with substantial cognitive, volitional or emotional disorder that impairs their ability to recognize reality.

For a minor, a "guardian ad litem" is:

A. An attorney that looks out for the minor's best interest.
B. Independently monitor the situation.
C. Represent a minor as an attorney.
D. As the guardian at litem, be sure to do what the minor requests.

A. An attorney that looks out for the minor's best interest.

A mental health evaluation can be no longer than:

A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours

C. 72 hours

Aside from a licensed medical professional or a registered nurse, who may take someone into custody for a treatment evaluation?

A. A family member, including sibling or spouse
B. Any person related by blood
C. A Peace Officer, licensed clinical social worker, or state certified psychologist.
D. Court appointed guardian ad litem

C. A Peace Officer, licensed clinical social worker, or state certified psychologist.

When can an emergency procedure for a treatment evaluation be invoked?

A. Reasonable cause by a search warrant
B. Probable cause or by a sworn affidavit
C. Reasonable suspicion
D. Probable cause from a search warrant

B. Probable cause or by a sworn affidavit

In which of the following does a person not need a license to operate a motor vehicle?

A. A party without a license drives his farm equipment to town to purchase groceries.
B. A soldier in active duty who drives a federally owned vehicle on a highway.
C. A party with a suspended license from another state.
D. A party who is operating a three wheeler on the highway driving to work.

B. A soldier in active duty who drives a federally owned vehicle on a highway.

Which party is in violation?

A. On a roadway, the operator of a motorized bicycle with a valid license, but not motorcycle endorsement.
B. A party operating a two wheeled motorcycle with a three wheel endorsement.
C. A party operating a motorized bicycle in a bicycle lane.
D. All of the above

B. A party operating a two wheeled motorcycle with a three wheel endorsement.

Which is true for driver's under the age of 18?

A. Cannot have more than one passenger in the front seat of a motor vehicle.
B. Can only drive passengers to and from school or work.
C. Number of passengers in back seat may exceed the number of seat belts.
D. May not have passengers in car after curfew.

A. Cannot have more than one passenger in the front seat of a motor vehicle.

When stopping at a railroad crossing signal?

A. Stop 5 to 25 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad grade
B. Stop 15 to 50 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad grade
C. Stop 10 to 40 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad grade
D. There are no regulations on how far to stop from the rail road grade.

B. Stop 15 to 50 feet from the nearest rail of the railroad grade

When does it become necessary for a resident to register a vehicle in Colorado after becoming a resident?(42-3-103)(4)(a)

A. 60 days after purchase/90 days after becoming a resident
B. 60 days after purchase or residency
C. 30 days after purchase, 60 days after residency
D. 90 days after purchase or residency

A. 60 days after purchase/90 days after becoming a resident

How long can military personnel displaying plates issued by the U.S. Armed Forces be exempt from registering their vehicles upon their return to Colorado?(42-3-103)(4)(b).

A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 45 days
D. 90 days

C. 45 days

Can a person repossessing a motor vehicle operate the vehicle for a short distance laying the number plates issued to a former owner? Who must be notified?

A. No, plates should be removed
B. Yes, but only on public roadway within 100 meters to a tow truck
C. Yes with permit from the department or police with jurisdiction
D. No, repossessing agent must use "Repo" tags over old tags

C. Yes with permit from the department or police with jurisdiction

1. Is it illegal to have license plates "wired" onto a motor vehicle?

A. Yes, unless state authorized wire is used
B. No as long as they are securely fastened
C. No but must have at least one bolt
D. Yes, must use bolts or fasteners

B. No as long as they are securely fastened

Which of the following defines a "school bus"?

A. Any vehicle used with proper marking identifying as a school bus
B. Motor vehicle contracted by government to transport children for school related activities.
C. Any vehicle authorized by a licensed school bus driver performing official school duties
D. A Motor vehicle contracted by the government that is used for transporting anyone for any purpose

B. Motor vehicle contracted by government to transport children for school related activities.

(18-3-102(1 )(b)) in Colorado Legislation states felony murder is?

A. Manslaughter
B. 1st Degree Murder
C. 2nd Degree Murder
D. None of the above

B. 1st Degree Murder

To obtain the charge of 3rd degree assault, what type of injury is needed?

A. No Injury
B. Bodily Injury
C. Death
D. Serious Bodily Injury

B. Bodily Injury

(18-3-402)(d) states that if a child is less than 15 years of age and the actor is at least years older the that person is guilty of sexual assault.

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 4 years
D. 20 years

C. 4 years

(18-3-402)(e) states that if a child is at least 15 years of age but less than 17 years of age and the actor is at least_____years older the that person can be guilty of sexual assault.

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 4 years
D. 20 years

B. 10 years

Failing to return rental property for_____ hours after the agreed time it was supposed to be returned, constitutes theft. Also known as theft of rental property under (18-4-40 l)(e)

A. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. One month
D. 5 Days

A. 72 hours