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Which scenario best demonstrates the defining feature of a definitive host
A. Larval cyst in muscle tissue
B. Asexual multiplication in erythrocytes
C. Development of infective immature stage
D. Occurence of sexual reproduction
D
Definitive host
Sexual
Adult
Mature
Intermediate host
Asexual
Larval
Immature
The definititve host of Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)
A. Pig
B. Human
C. Cow
D. Insects
B
T solium (pork)
Definitive - human
Intermediate - pig
Definitive host of Plasmodium spp (Malaria)
A. Mosquito
B. Human
C. Pig
D. Rat
A
Plasmodium
Definitive - mosquito
Intermediate - human
Which classification is the most specific
A. Genera
B. Class
C. Species
D. Family
C
All of the following viruses are oncogenic EXCEPT
A. CMV
B. HBV
C. EBV
D. HTLV-I
A
RECALL QUESTION
What cancer can be caused by Clonorchis and Opistorchis parasites
A. Intestinal cancer
B. Bile duct cancer
C. Bladder cancer
D. Colon cancer
B
RECALL QUESTION
The following are oncogenic parasites EXCEPT
A. Clonorchis spp
B. S. haematobium
C. Opistorchis spp
D. E. histolytica
D
Oncogenic parasites
Clonorchis
Opistorchis
S haematobium
Most common organ infected by E. histolytica
A. Small intestines
B. Liver
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
C
RECALL QUESTION
Most common extraintestinal organ infected by E. histolytica
A. Small intestines
B. Liver
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
B
Which is incorrectly matched
A. Round shaped ulcer - B. coli
B. Flask shaped ulcer - E. histolytica
C. Both
D. Neither
D
Round - B coli
Flask - E histo
Which protozoa should be reported to the clinician
A. Endolimax nana
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Entamoeba dispar
D. Dientsmoeba fragilis
C
RECALL QUESTION
E histo
E dispar
E hartmanni
The following parasites cannot undergo sexual reproduction EXCEPT
A. Amoebas
B. Flagellates
C. Ciliates
D. Sporozoa
D
Sporozoa can undergo BOTH sexual and asexual
Which of the following cannot be transmitted congenitally (mother - baby)
A. Toxoplasma
B. CMV
C. Shingles
D. Herpes
C
Congenital (ToRCH)
Toxoplasma
Rubella
CMV
Herpes
In congenital toxoplasmosis which antibody is the most sensitive for early detection in newborns
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA
D
RECALL QUESTION

Which of the following is a gametocyte
C
RECALL QUESTION
How many fields should be counted before reporting negative smear for malaria
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500
C
RECALL QUESTION
TB & malaria - 300 fields
Which parasite ova is described to exhibit flattened bipolar plugs
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Capillaria philippinensis
C. Necator americanus
D. Enterobius vermicularis
B
Round bipolar - trichuris
Flat bipolar - capillaria
Eggs are not routinely used to diagnose which parasite
A. Necator americanus
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichiura
C
RECALL QUESTION
Strongy - rhabditiform
Which can be acquired via ingestion and inhalation
A . Enterobius vermicularis
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Hookworms
A
RECALL QUESTION
Wag amuyin ang pwet may Enterobius
Nematode with bipolar plugs
A. Trichuris trichiura
B. Capillaria philipinensis
C. Both
D. Neither
C
RECALL QUESTION
Trichuris - round plugs
Capillaria - flat plugs
Nematodes are also known as
A. Tapeworm
B. Flatworm
C. Roundworm
D. Fluke
C
RECALL QUESTION
Round - nematode
Tape - cestode
Fluke - trematode
Flat - cestode & trematode
Best time to collect Enterobius vermicularis ova
A. Morning
B. Afternoon
C. Night
D. Anytime
A
RECALL QUESTION
Night - laying eggs
Morning - collect eggs
Which of the following skin test is used for Ascaris infection
A. Bachman test
B. Montenegro test
C. Moan test
D. Casoni test
C
Skin tests
Bachman - T spiralis
Moan - Ascaris
Montenegro - Leishmania
Casoni - E granulosus
Mantoux - TB
This parasite causes iron deficiency anemia
A. D. latum
B. E. granulosus
C. Hookworms
D. T. canis
C
IDA - hookworm
Megaloblastic - D latum
The actively reproducing part of cestodes
A. Neck
B. Proglottid
C. Scolex
D. Rostellum
B
RECALL QUESTION
Mature proglottid
Leaf like unsegmented and mostly monoecious
A. Trematode
B. Cestode
C. Nematode
D. Cyst
A
RECALL QUESTION
Cestode - ribbon like
Nematode - round like
Trematode - leaf like

Identify the stage
A. Sporocyst
B. Cercaria
C. Miracidium
D. Metacercaria
C
RECALL QUESTION
Miracidium - ciliated
Cercaria - tailed
Metacercaria - cyst wall
Which causes cholangiocarcinoma
A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Echinococcus
D. Paragonimus
B
RECALL QUESTION
Cholangiocarcinoma - BILE DUCT cancer
By clonorchis & opistorchis

Which is a nematode
A
RECALL QUESTION
A - round - nematode
B & C - leaf like - trematode
D - ribbon flat - cestode
Vector of Y. pestis
A. Ixodes
B. Aedes
C. Xenopsylla
D. Simulium
C
RECALL QUESTION
Xenopsylla - flea - Y pestis
Viruses are classified as
A. Prokaryote
B. Eukaryote
C. Both
D. Neither
D
Viruses are acellular
All of the following are spiral shaped EXCEPT
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Vibrio cholerae
A
Vibrio - curved
Treponema - spiral
Campylobacter - curved
What exhibits swimming, swarming, and twitching motility
A. Proteus spp
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Spirochetes
D. Vibrio spp
B
Proteus aeruginosa can do all 3
Which is not a type of bacterial motility
A. Swimming
B. Swarming
C. Darting
D. Brownian movement
D
Brownian - pseudo motility
What type of motility allows P. aeruginosa to spread on the surface of a solid agar
A. Swimming
B. Swarming
C. Twitching
D. Gliding
C
Swarming - SOFT agar
Twitching - SOLID agar
Swimming - broth
What bacteria is capable of swarming on soft agar
A. Escherichia coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella typhi
B
P aeruginosa
Swarming - SOFT agar
Twitching - SOLID agar
Swimming - broth
What temperature is best if there will be a slight delay in processing viral samples
A. 4°C
B. -70°C
C. -32°C
D. -4°C
A
Short delay - 4
Long delay - -70
What should you do if there is delay in processing fungal samples
A. Refrigerate it
B. Freeze it
C. Add NSS
D. Add povidone iodine
A
Usually room temp but if delayed then refrigerate
When cleaning the skin with iodophor how long should it remain intact on the skin
A. 30 sec
B. 1 min
C. 2 mins
D. 15 sec
C
Iodophor - 1 min
Iodine tincture - 30 sec
Removal of resistant bacterial spores can be accomplished by the following EXCEPT
A. Moist heat at 121°C at 15 psi
B. Moist heat at 132°C for 1 hour
C. Incineration
D. UV radiation
D
All are sporicidal (sterilization) except UV (disinfection)
All can be refrigerated before testing EXCEPT
A. Stool
B. Urine
C. Blood
D. Viral specimen
C
RECALL QUESTION
Cold kills organisms in blood
What test can differentiate N. lactamida from N. meningitidis
A. ONPG
B. Catalase
C. Maltose
D. Sucrose
A
ONPG - Tests for ALL lactose fermentors
Only lactose fermenting Neisseria - lactamida
Sucrose - both dont ferment
Maltose - both ferments
The following are associated with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT
A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Prevotella spp
B
How should corneal scrapings for fungal culture be handled
A. Refrigerate immediately
B. Process within <2 hours at room temperature
C. Process within 24 hours at room temperature
D. Transport in Stuarts medium
C
RECALL QUESTION
Standard is within 2 hrs but cornea is exemption
Causative agent of Tinea versicolor
A. Piedraia hortae
B. Hortea werneckii
c. Malassezia furfur
D. Trichosporon spp
C
RECALL QUESTION
Which provides a presumptive identification of viral infection
A. Cytopathic effect on cell culture
B. Intracellular RBC inclusions
C. Sheep RBC lysis
D. Presence of mononuclear inflammatory cells
A
RECALL QUESTION
Inclusions not on RBCs since not nucleated
Virus needs nucleated cells
What is the specimen for rotavirus
A. Sputum
B. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Stool
D. Blood
C
RECALL QUESTION
Rotavirus causes gastroenteritis
Specimen for varicella zoster virus
A. Nasal swab
B. Rectal swab
C. Vesicle fluid
D. Skin scraping
C
RECALL QUESTION
Skin is good but vesicle is best
Vesicle more sterile and liquid
0