MICROBIO

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Last updated 10:22 AM on 7/5/26
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49 Terms

1
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Which scenario best demonstrates the defining feature of a definitive host

A. Larval cyst in muscle tissue

B. Asexual multiplication in erythrocytes

C. Development of infective immature stage

D. Occurence of sexual reproduction

D

Definitive host

  • Sexual

  • Adult

  • Mature

Intermediate host

  • Asexual

  • Larval

  • Immature

2
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The definititve host of Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

A. Pig

B. Human

C. Cow

D. Insects

B

T solium (pork)

  • Definitive - human

  • Intermediate - pig

3
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Definitive host of Plasmodium spp (Malaria)

A. Mosquito

B. Human

C. Pig

D. Rat

A

Plasmodium

  • Definitive - mosquito

  • Intermediate - human

4
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Which classification is the most specific

A. Genera

B. Class

C. Species

D. Family

C

5
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All of the following viruses are oncogenic EXCEPT

A. CMV

B. HBV

C. EBV

D. HTLV-I

A

RECALL QUESTION

6
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What cancer can be caused by Clonorchis and Opistorchis parasites

A. Intestinal cancer

B. Bile duct cancer

C. Bladder cancer

D. Colon cancer

B

RECALL QUESTION

7
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The following are oncogenic parasites EXCEPT

A. Clonorchis spp

B. S. haematobium

C. Opistorchis spp

D. E. histolytica

D

Oncogenic parasites

  • Clonorchis

  • Opistorchis

  • S haematobium

8
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Most common organ infected by E. histolytica

A. Small intestines

B. Liver

C. Large intestine

D. Stomach

C

RECALL QUESTION

9
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Most common extraintestinal organ infected by E. histolytica

A. Small intestines

B. Liver

C. Large intestine

D. Stomach

B

10
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Which is incorrectly matched

A. Round shaped ulcer - B. coli

B. Flask shaped ulcer - E. histolytica

C. Both

D. Neither

D

  • Round - B coli

  • Flask - E histo

11
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Which protozoa should be reported to the clinician

A. Endolimax nana

B. Entamoeba coli

C. Entamoeba dispar

D. Dientsmoeba fragilis

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • E histo

  • E dispar

  • E hartmanni

12
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The following parasites cannot undergo sexual reproduction EXCEPT

A. Amoebas

B. Flagellates

C. Ciliates

D. Sporozoa

D

Sporozoa can undergo BOTH sexual and asexual

13
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Which of the following cannot be transmitted congenitally (mother - baby)

A. Toxoplasma

B. CMV

C. Shingles

D. Herpes

C

Congenital (ToRCH)

  • Toxoplasma

  • Rubella

  • CMV

  • Herpes

14
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In congenital toxoplasmosis which antibody is the most sensitive for early detection in newborns

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgD

D. IgA

D

RECALL QUESTION

15
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<p>Which of the following is a gametocyte</p><p class="has-focus"></p>

Which of the following is a gametocyte

C

RECALL QUESTION

16
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How many fields should be counted before reporting negative smear for malaria

A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 500

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • TB & malaria - 300 fields

17
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Which parasite ova is described to exhibit flattened bipolar plugs

A. Trichuris trichiura

B. Capillaria philippinensis

C. Necator americanus

D. Enterobius vermicularis

B

  • Round bipolar - trichuris

  • Flat bipolar - capillaria

18
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Eggs are not routinely used to diagnose which parasite

A. Necator americanus

B. Ascaris lumbricoides

C. Strongyloides stercoralis

D. Trichuris trichiura

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Strongy - rhabditiform

19
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Which can be acquired via ingestion and inhalation

A . Enterobius vermicularis

B. Trichuris trichiura

C. Ascaris lumbricoides

D. Hookworms

A

RECALL QUESTION

  • Wag amuyin ang pwet may Enterobius

20
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Nematode with bipolar plugs

A. Trichuris trichiura

B. Capillaria philipinensis

C. Both

D. Neither

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Trichuris - round plugs

  • Capillaria - flat plugs

21
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Nematodes are also known as

A. Tapeworm

B. Flatworm

C. Roundworm

D. Fluke

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Round - nematode

  • Tape - cestode

  • Fluke - trematode

  • Flat - cestode & trematode

22
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Best time to collect Enterobius vermicularis ova

A. Morning

B. Afternoon

C. Night

D. Anytime

A

RECALL QUESTION

  • Night - laying eggs

  • Morning - collect eggs

23
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Which of the following skin test is used for Ascaris infection

A. Bachman test

B. Montenegro test

C. Moan test

D. Casoni test

C

Skin tests

  • Bachman - T spiralis

  • Moan - Ascaris

  • Montenegro - Leishmania

  • Casoni - E granulosus

  • Mantoux - TB

24
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This parasite causes iron deficiency anemia

A. D. latum

B. E. granulosus

C. Hookworms

D. T. canis

C

  • IDA - hookworm

  • Megaloblastic - D latum

25
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The actively reproducing part of cestodes

A. Neck

B. Proglottid

C. Scolex

D. Rostellum

B

RECALL QUESTION

  • Mature proglottid

26
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Leaf like unsegmented and mostly monoecious

A. Trematode

B. Cestode

C. Nematode

D. Cyst

A

RECALL QUESTION

  • Cestode - ribbon like

  • Nematode - round like

  • Trematode - leaf like

27
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<p>Identify the stage</p><p class="has-focus">A. Sporocyst</p><p class="has-focus">B. Cercaria</p><p class="has-focus">C. Miracidium</p><p class="has-focus">D. Metacercaria</p>

Identify the stage

A. Sporocyst

B. Cercaria

C. Miracidium

D. Metacercaria

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Miracidium - ciliated

  • Cercaria - tailed

  • Metacercaria - cyst wall

28
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Which causes cholangiocarcinoma

A. Fasciola

B. Clonorchis

C. Echinococcus

D. Paragonimus

B

RECALL QUESTION

  • Cholangiocarcinoma - BILE DUCT cancer

  • By clonorchis & opistorchis

29
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<p>Which is a nematode</p>

Which is a nematode

A

RECALL QUESTION

  • A - round - nematode

  • B & C - leaf like - trematode

  • D - ribbon flat - cestode

30
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Vector of Y. pestis

A. Ixodes

B. Aedes

C. Xenopsylla

D. Simulium

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Xenopsylla - flea - Y pestis

31
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Viruses are classified as

A. Prokaryote

B. Eukaryote

C. Both

D. Neither

D

Viruses are acellular

32
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All of the following are spiral shaped EXCEPT

A. Clostridium botulinum

B. Campylobacter jejuni

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Vibrio cholerae

A

  • Vibrio - curved

  • Treponema - spiral

  • Campylobacter - curved

33
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What exhibits swimming, swarming, and twitching motility

A. Proteus spp

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Spirochetes

D. Vibrio spp

B

Proteus aeruginosa can do all 3

34
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Which is not a type of bacterial motility

A. Swimming

B. Swarming

C. Darting

D. Brownian movement

D

Brownian - pseudo motility

35
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What type of motility allows P. aeruginosa to spread on the surface of a solid agar

A. Swimming

B. Swarming

C. Twitching

D. Gliding

C

  • Swarming - SOFT agar

  • Twitching - SOLID agar

  • Swimming - broth

36
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What bacteria is capable of swarming on soft agar

A. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Salmonella typhi

B

P aeruginosa

  • Swarming - SOFT agar

  • Twitching - SOLID agar

  • Swimming - broth

37
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What temperature is best if there will be a slight delay in processing viral samples

A. 4°C

B. -70°C

C. -32°C

D. -4°C

A

  • Short delay - 4

  • Long delay - -70

38
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What should you do if there is delay in processing fungal samples

A. Refrigerate it

B. Freeze it

C. Add NSS

D. Add povidone iodine

A

Usually room temp but if delayed then refrigerate

39
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When cleaning the skin with iodophor how long should it remain intact on the skin

A. 30 sec

B. 1 min

C. 2 mins

D. 15 sec

C

  • Iodophor - 1 min

  • Iodine tincture - 30 sec

40
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Removal of resistant bacterial spores can be accomplished by the following EXCEPT

A. Moist heat at 121°C at 15 psi

B. Moist heat at 132°C for 1 hour

C. Incineration

D. UV radiation

D

All are sporicidal (sterilization) except UV (disinfection)

41
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All can be refrigerated before testing EXCEPT

A. Stool

B. Urine

C. Blood

D. Viral specimen

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Cold kills organisms in blood

42
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What test can differentiate N. lactamida from N. meningitidis

A. ONPG

B. Catalase

C. Maltose

D. Sucrose

A

  • ONPG - Tests for ALL lactose fermentors

  • Only lactose fermenting Neisseria - lactamida

  • Sucrose - both dont ferment

  • Maltose - both ferments

43
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The following are associated with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT

A. Burkholderia cepacia

B. Francisella tularensis

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Prevotella spp

B

44
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How should corneal scrapings for fungal culture be handled

A. Refrigerate immediately

B. Process within <2 hours at room temperature

C. Process within 24 hours at room temperature

D. Transport in Stuarts medium

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Standard is within 2 hrs but cornea is exemption

45
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Causative agent of Tinea versicolor

A. Piedraia hortae

B. Hortea werneckii

c. Malassezia furfur

D. Trichosporon spp

C

RECALL QUESTION

46
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Which provides a presumptive identification of viral infection

A. Cytopathic effect on cell culture

B. Intracellular RBC inclusions

C. Sheep RBC lysis

D. Presence of mononuclear inflammatory cells

A

RECALL QUESTION

  • Inclusions not on RBCs since not nucleated

  • Virus needs nucleated cells

47
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What is the specimen for rotavirus

A. Sputum

B. Nasopharyngeal swab

C. Stool

D. Blood

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Rotavirus causes gastroenteritis

48
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Specimen for varicella zoster virus

A. Nasal swab

B. Rectal swab

C. Vesicle fluid

D. Skin scraping

C

RECALL QUESTION

  • Skin is good but vesicle is best

  • Vesicle more sterile and liquid

49
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