Cybersecurity Lecture Notes

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Flashcards based on lecture notes about cybersecurity, risk management, and network security.

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83 Terms

1
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What is a Risk Register?

A comprehensive record listing all identified risks, their impacts, owners, and status; used to track and monitor risks over time.

2
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What is Qualitative Risk Assessment?

A risk assessment method that ranks risks by likelihood and impact without assigning specific financial values.

3
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What is the role of an Audit Committee in cybersecurity?

A governance body that oversees cybersecurity risks and ensures regulatory compliance, rather than managing daily IT operations.

4
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What is Agentless Posture Assessment (NAC)?

A method in Network Access Control that does not install agents on devices, but provides less detailed information about client devices.

5
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What does RTO stand for, and what does it define?

Recovery Time Objective; the maximum acceptable time to restore a system or process after a disruption.

6
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Define Neutral Risk Appetite.

A balanced approach to risk, neither overly cautious nor aggressive.

7
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Why is integration with security protocols critical for secure deployment?

Ensuring new systems work with existing security measures is critical for secure deployment.

8
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What is a Password Spraying Attack?

An attack where common passwords are tried across many accounts, rather than brute-forcing one account.

9
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What is Package Monitoring?

Tracking software versions and patches to identify and address vulnerabilities.

10
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What is a Tabletop Exercise?

A discussion-based scenario where teams talk through responses to incidents, without hands-on action.

11
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What is Informed Consent (GDPR)?

A principle requiring clear communication and permission before collecting or processing personal data.

12
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What is Tokenization?

Replacing sensitive data with unique tokens stored in a database, so attackers see only meaningless symbols.

13
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What is the function of OSI Layer 4 (Transport Layer) in security?

Handles filtering based on IP addresses and port numbers (e.g., TCP/UDP).

14
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What is Internal Audit Evidence?

Documentation of a vendor’s own internal security evaluations.

15
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What security practices are best for securing data at rest?

Encryption and ACLs (Access Control Lists).

16
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Why does Microservices Security require granular access controls?

Each microservice may need unique permissions.

17
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Give an example of a Managerial Security Control.

Risk assessments, which are periodic evaluations of threats and vulnerabilities.

18
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Why is Employee Retention important for security automation?

Keeps institutional knowledge and expertise, especially for managing security automation.

19
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What are Recovery and Restoration Processes?

Disaster recovery actions to bring up backup systems and restore data after a disruption.

20
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How does a Proxy Server aid in security?

A device that relays requests for servers, reducing the public-facing attack surface.

21
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What is a security concern regarding RTOS (Real-Time Operating System)?

May lack adequate buffer overflow protections due to performance focus.

22
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Define EF (Exposure Factor).

The percentage of an asset’s value lost if a risk event occurs.

23
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What is Risk Appetite?

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives.

24
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Define Regulated Data.

Data subject to strict compliance standards and legal requirements.

25
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What is ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence)?

The expected number of times a risk event will occur in a year.

26
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Why is WPA3 the most secure wifi protocol?

Latest and most secure Wi-Fi protocol; uses individualized encryption, Diffie-Hellman key agreement, and protects management frames.

27
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What is Active Reconnaissance?

Direct interaction with systems to gather info, which can alert the target.

28
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What capabilities does a NGFW (Next Generation Firewall) provide?

Provides application awareness, deep packet inspection, and integration with other security products.

29
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What is CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures)?

A standardized system for naming and referencing publicly known security vulnerabilities in software and systems. Each CVE entry provides a unique identifier for a specific vulnerability.

30
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What is Identity Proofing?

The process of verifying that a person is who they claim to be, often using knowledge-based questions, ID checks, and employment validation.

31
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What is Application Recovery?

Restoring an application or its components (like databases) from a backup after corruption or failure, ensuring minimal data loss and restored functionality.

32
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Define MOU (Memorandum of Understanding).

A formal agreement between organizations outlining collaboration terms and intentions, often preceding a legally binding contract.

33
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What is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) used for?

Used for monitoring and managing network devices. It does not secure communication between software applications.

34
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What security concern exist for HMI (Human-Machine Interface)?

The ICS component allowing direct operator interaction. Main security concern: preventing unauthorized access.

35
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What is Audit Trail?

A chronological record of system activities, crucial for detecting and investigating security breaches.

36
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What are Guard Rails (in Automation)?

Policy boundaries in automated workflows to prevent errors and keep processes within safe, defined parameters. Not physical security for server rooms.

37
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What does Archiving refer to?

Long-term, secure storage of data for compliance and historical analysis. Archiving does not inherently speed up searches for old data.

38
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What is NetFlow?

A network protocol for collecting and monitoring IP traffic flow information. It helps visualize traffic patterns but does not directly identify attack types—it provides data for analysts to interpret.

39
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What are Ephemeral Credentials?

Temporary access credentials that expire after a short period, ideal for tasks like cloud maintenance.

40
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What potential vulnerabilty exist for Port 1433?

Default port for Microsoft SQL Server. If left open, it can allow unauthorized database queries from external sources.

41
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What does AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) provide?

The most secure and widely recommended encryption protocol for wireless networks and symmetric encryption of data at rest and in transit.

42
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What can be stated about Serverless architecture?

A cloud computing model where you run code without managing the underlying infrastructure.

43
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What function does MDM (Mobile Device Management) – Remote Wipe offer?

The ability to erase all data from a lost or stolen mobile device remotely, protecting organizational data.

44
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What does Threat Actor Capability refer to?

Refers to the ability of an attacker to develop unique exploit techniques and tools.

45
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What is the value of Application Logs – Failed Logins?

When investigating breaches, details of failed logins (timestamps, usernames, IPs) are most valuable for identifying unauthorized access attempts.

46
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What does Rule-Based Access Control refer to?

Access is determined by predefined rules and conditions, not by user or admin discretion

47
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What is Due Diligence/Care?

Taking proactive steps to meet legal and compliance requirements, such as implementing policies and controls.

48
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What is an Agent-Based Web Filter?

A web filtering solution installed on user devices, ensuring consistent policy enforcement regardless of location.

49
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What risk Client-Based Software present?

Software installed and running on a user's device, which can be an attack vector if updates are compromised.

50
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What vulnerability is Time-of-Check (TOC) Race Condition?

A vulnerability where a resource is checked, but its state changes before it is used, leading to potential exploitation.

51
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What is a Vulnerability Exception?

A formal process to delay or avoid remediation of a known vulnerability due to business needs, with risk acceptance.

52
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What security does S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) provide?

An email security standard that uses certificates to sign and encrypt email content.

53
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What is Enumeration?

Assigning unique identifiers and access controls to assets for inventory and security management.

54
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What function do Physical Security Keys fill?

Hardware tokens (e.g., USB keys) used for multi-factor authentication.

55
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What does a Longer Password Policy intend to do?

Increasing password length to enhance resistance to brute force attacks.

56
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When might Ephemeral Credentials be best used?

Temporary, automatically expiring credentials for short-term privileged access.

57
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Define Likelihood (Risk).

The probability of a risk event occurring, often described as "high," "medium," or "low".

58
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Describe Amplified DDoS Attack.

A DDoS technique where small requests trigger large responses from servers, overwhelming the target.

59
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Why is it imprtant to perform Integrated Penetration Test?

A test that assesses vulnerabilities across physical, software, and network layers.

60
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What is the function of Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)?

Metrics that provide early warnings of increasing risk exposure.

61
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What is Risk Analysis?

Quantifying the financial impact of specific risks, often using both probability and loss estimates.

62
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What is the function of Database Encryption?

Encrypting an entire database for efficient bulk protection of records.

63
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What is Parallel Processing?

A computational approach that allows simultaneous assessment of multiple recovery strategies.

64
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What can be exploited in a Buffer Overflow?

An attack where input exceeds a buffer’s capacity, potentially allowing code execution.

65
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Define Business Email Compromise (BEC).

A targeted email attack impersonating executives to fraudulently redirect funds or steal sensitive data.

66
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What is an Ad Hoc Risk Assessment?

A risk assessment performed as needed in response to new threats or changes.

67
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What is Data Masking?

Obscuring sensitive data while preserving its structure for analysis.

68
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Describe Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF).

An attack tricking authenticated users into submitting unwanted actions on a web application.

69
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What is Attestation (IAM)?

A process where data owners periodically review and confirm user access rights.

70
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What characteristize Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Calculating risk impact using numerical values for likelihood and potential loss.

71
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Why do Microservices Security introduce complexity?

Microservices architectures introduce complexity and potential vulnerabilities in inter-service communication.

72
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What function Regulatory Agencies provide?

Entities that establish and enforce security standards across sectors.

73
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Describe Hybrid Warfare.

A strategy combining espionage, disinformation, hacking, and diplomacy, often by state actors.

74
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What functions does SWG (Secure Web Gateway) perform?

A solution that filters user web traffic, blocks malicious URLs, and provides threat analysis.

75
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What does Snapshots allow a adminstrator to do?

Quick, storage-efficient system state captures for rapid rollback.

76
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Why can Embedded System poses security risks?

Devices with hardcoded software, often unpatchable, posing security risks.

77
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What does Salting do?

Adding random data to input before hashing to strengthen security.

78
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What characterize a One-Time Risk Assessment?

A comprehensive evaluation at a specific point, often for new systems.

79
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What is Clustering?

Grouping servers for fault tolerance, with each handling different tasks.

80
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What does MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) define?

Average time to repair a system after a failure.

81
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What is Due Diligence (Vendor Selection)?

Ensuring a vendor’s practices align with organizational requirements.

82
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Why is proper staffing of Skilled Personnel crucial for security automation?

Crucial for supporting and maintaining security automation tools.

83
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What characterize Operational Security Control?

Day-to-day controls like log monitoring, as opposed to technical or managerial controls