Wetland Regulation, Delineation, Mitigation, and Restoration Flashcards

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Comprehensive practice flashcards covering wetland policy, delineation techniques, ecosystem service categories, and modern restoration strategies based on lecture notes.

Last updated 4:37 AM on 5/7/26
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100 Terms

1
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When were the Swamp Land Acts passed?

18491849, 18501850, and 18601860

2
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What was the purpose of the Swamp Land Acts?

To give 6565 million acres of wetlands to states to drain for agriculture and development

3
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What act protected only navigable waters from obstruction in 18991899?

Rivers and Harbors Act

4
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Which act requires wildlife conservation to receive equal consideration in water resource development?

Fish & Wildlife Coordination Act

5
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Which agency must the USACE consult to minimize loss of wildlife resources under the Fish & Wildlife Coordination Act?

US Fish and Wildlife Service

6
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Which 19651965 act allowed for the purchase of critical wetland habitats to be preserved as National Wildlife Refuges?

Land & Water Conservation Fund Act

7
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What is the primary tool for wetland protection under the Modern Regulation era?

Clean Water Act Section 404

8
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Under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act, from whom must you obtain a permit to dredge or fill in a wetland?

US Army Corps of Engineers (USACE)

9
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Which agency has 'veto power' over Section 404 permits if the impact is believed to be too great?

EPA

10
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What does WOTUS stand for?

Waters of the United States

11
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In which Supreme Court case was the Migratory Bird Rule struck down?

SWANCC v USACE

12
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Which case questioned whether the CWA covers non-navigable tributaries and their adjacent wetlands?

Rapanos v US (2006)

13
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According to the 20232023 Sackett v. EPA ruling, what must a wetland have to be protected federally?

A continuous surface connection to a navigable water

14
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What percentage of US wetlands lost federal protection following the Sackett v. EPA ruling?

63%63\%

15
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What national policy goal was established in 19881988 under George H.W. Bush to ensure wetland area does not decrease?

No Net Loss Policy

16
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What is the name of CT’s specific wetland law passed in 19721972?

Inland Wetlands & Watercourses Act

17
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How does Connecticut define wetlands?

By soil type

18
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What are the four soil types defined as wetlands in Connecticut?

Poorly drained, very poorly drained, alluvial, and floodplain

19
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How many towns in CT have an inland volunteer commission for local wetland control?

169169

20
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What is the typical buffer distance for a CT town's Upland Review Area?

Often about 100ft100\,ft

21
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What are the three steps in the Mitigation Hierarchy?

Avoid, Minimize, and Compensate

22
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What is defined as the amount of wetland area that must be restored/created relative to the amount lost?

Mitigation Ratio

23
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What is the system where developers purchase 'credits' from a large project to fulfill regulatory requirements?

Mitigation Banking

24
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What does the acronym RIBITS stand for?

Regulatory In-Lieu Fee and Bank Information Tracking System

25
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Which organization manages the In-Lieu Fee Program in Connecticut?

Audubon CT

26
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What are the three mandatory federal criteria for Wetland Delineation?

Hydrophytic vegetation, hydric soils, and hydrology

27
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What is the foundational manual used for all Section 404 delineations?

USACE 1987 Manual

28
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What four strata must be sampled separately in hydrophytic vegetation assessment?

Tree, Sapling/Shrub, Herb, and Woody Vine

29
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According to the 50/2050/20 Rule, which species are considered 'dominants'?

Species that exceed 50%50\% of total cover, plus any single species 20%\ge 20\%

30
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A stratum passes the hydrophytic test if what percentage of dominants are OBL, FACW, or FAC?

> 50\%

31
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What is the indicator status and frequency for OBL plants?

Obligate; > 99\%

32
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What is the indicator status and frequency for FACW plants?

Facultative Wetland; 6799%67-99\%

33
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What is the indicator status and frequency for FAC plants?

Facultative; 3366%33-66\%

34
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What is the indicator status and frequency for UPL plants?

Upland; < 1\%

35
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What value must the Prevalence Index be to pass as hydrophytic vegetation?

3\le 3

36
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What test confirms hydrophytic vegetation if all dominant species are OBL or FACW?

Rapid Test

37
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What percentage of individuals of a FACU species must show morphological adaptations to pass that test?

> 50\%

38
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Once O2 is gone in saturated soils, which two elements do microbes use for respiration?

Iron and manganese

39
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What chart is used to identify soil color objectively?

Munsell Color Chart

40
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What is the typical hydric soil chroma with mottles?

A chroma of 22 or less

41
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What is the typical hydric soil chroma without mottles?

A chroma of 11 or less

42
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What soil matrix indicator is blue, green, or neutral grey and indicates permanent saturation?

Gleying

43
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What are the bright orange spots where iron has reduced in small air pockets called?

Mottles (Redox concentrations)

44
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What are orange halos around living root channels called?

Rhizopheric deposition

45
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At what depth is soil typically sampled to assess hydric indicators?

812inches8-12\,inches

46
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What is the '12in12in Rule' in wetland hydrology?

Looking for evidence of water within the top 12inches12\,inches of soil during the growing season

47
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Name three primary indicators of wetland hydrology.

Surface water, High water table, and Saturation

48
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How many secondary indicators are needed if no primary hydrology indicators are present?

22

49
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Which secondary hydrology indicator involves 'chimneys' in the mud?

Crayfish Burrows

50
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What hydrology test compares the number of OBL/FACW plants to FACU/UPL plants?

FAC-neutral test

51
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List the steps of the Ecosystem Service Cascade.

Biophysical structure \rightarrow function \rightarrow service \rightarrow benefit \rightarrow value

52
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What are the four pillars of ecosystem services?

Supporting, Provisioning, Regulating, and Cultural

53
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Which supporting service refers to the creation of biomass through photosynthesis?

Primary Productivity

54
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What is the term for the long-term accumulation of organic matter in anaerobic conditions?

Peat (Soil Formation)

55
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What fraction of the world's population depends on rice for food?

2/32/3

56
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How do wetlands mitigate flooding?

They act as sponges, increasing residence time and flattening the flood peak

57
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How do coastal wetlands provide storm surge protection?

They provide friction that reduces wave height and energy

58
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What process removes heavy metals from slow-moving water in wetlands?

Sedimentation

59
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What is the biological process where microbes convert nitrate into nitrogen gas?

Denitrification

60
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What are 'hot spots' for denitrification?

Areas where oxygenated water meets anaerobic zones, such as root zones

61
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Wetlands sequester carbon for thousands of years, making them massive what?

Carbon sinks

62
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Through what two mechanisms do wetlands trap phosphorus?

Sedimentation and adsorption to clay/particles

63
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What gas is released as a byproduct of anaerobic conditions in wetlands?

Methane

64
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Wetlands helping surface water move back into groundwater systems is called what?

Aquifer Recharge

65
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Recreation and Aesthetics are examples of which type of ecosystem service?

Cultural Services

66
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Which ecosystems have the highest estimated value in dollars per hectare per year?

Freshwater wetlands and estuaries

67
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Asking 'how much would it cost to build a treatment plant' defines what valuation method?

Replacement Costs

68
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What type of valuation is based on property damages prevented by a wetland?

Avoided Cost Valuation

69
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What is the difference between wetland restoration and creation?

Restoration returns a degraded wetland to its natural state, while creation converts a non-wetland into one

70
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Why is a 'control' site essential in restoration experiments?

To provide a baseline to ensure changes are due to restoration rather than natural variability

71
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Whose 20002000 paper identified key constraints that prevent restoration from meeting targets?

Zedler

72
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What did Zedler identify as a limitation to returning biodiversity on restored sites?

Depleted seed banks

73
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Zedler noted that soil organic matter and nitrogen accumulate slowly, often taking how long?

Decades or centuries

74
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What was Zedler’s concern regarding the length of monitoring windows?

They are often too short, typically only 5yrs5\,yrs

75
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Which researcher demonstrated in 20202020 that large-scale active seeding can overcome seed bank limitations?

Orth

76
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According to Orth (20202020), carbon and nitrogen sequestration can approach natural levels within how many decades?

Two decades

77
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Restoring a 'foundation species' can maximize both species richness and what other vital service?

Water quality improvement

78
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What is the primary aim of cranberry bog restoration?

Recover native biodiversity and promote nitrogen removal

79
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What method involves plugging drainage ditches to raise the water table?

Ditch Filling

80
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What is created in microtopography restoration to mimic natural swamp complexity?

Pit and mound structures

81
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What is often the primary limiting factor for denitrification in restored cranberry bogs?

Nitrate availability

82
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Which areas in restored bogs show significantly higher denitrification potential?

Groundwater seeps

83
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What greenhouse gas might be produced during incomplete denitrification?

Nitrous oxide

84
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Why is sediment added to coastal marshes in thin layers?

To increase elevation capital as sea level rise outpaces natural buildup

85
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What is the typical depth for thin layer sediment placement?

520cm5-20\,cm

86
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What is a risk of applying sediment deeper than 20cm20\,cm?

Existing plants may not grow through it, requiring active replanting

87
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What negative effect can finer textured soils have on marshes?

They may encourage crab burrowing, which destabilizes the marsh

88
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What can help prevent the colonization of Phragmites after sediment addition?

Higher density native plantings

89
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What is the most common management tool for invasive species in wetlands?

Physical removal or herbicide applications

90
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Why are physical removal or herbicides often ineffective for invasives?

They do not address underlying causes like altered hydrology or high nutrient loading

91
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The mentality that restoration is finished once earth moving is done is called what?

One and Done

92
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How should success in wetland restoration be measured beyond vegetation percentage?

By functional outcomes like nitrogen removal or carbon storage

93
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What is Adaptive Management?

Using monitoring data to inform future actions like adjusting water levels

94
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Which Justice defined the 'significant nexus' test?

Justice Kennedy

95
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How are inland wetlands in CT defined differently than at the federal level?

CT uses soil drainage class; the federal level uses the 3-pillar approach

96
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Who holds the authority for decisions on inland wetland permits in CT?

Local municipal (town) level commissions

97
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What is the term for a soil matrix with orange spots in air pockets?

Redox concentrations

98
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What are the three ecological processes Zedler argued are often ignored in restoration?

Landscape context, reference systems, and hydrological regimes

99
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Algal mats and drift lines are indicators of what wetland parameter?

Wetland Hydrology

100
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What is the specific regional supplement used for delineating wetlands in Connecticut?

The Regional Supplement to the Corps of Engineers Wetland Delineation Manual: Northcentral and Northeast Region