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∫xndx (n=−1)
n+1xn+1+C; Why can n not equal to -1?
Answer: Recall that this antiderivative comes from the “inverse” power rule. This would require us to add 1 to the power and divide by the new power, which results in: 0x0⇒undefined. Alternatively, when (n=−1), we would instead use the absolute-value-natural-logarithm antiderivative of x1.
∫x1dx
ln∣x∣+C; Why do we take the absolute value of “x”?
Answer: The domain of x1 includes x<1; however, the antiderivative of it cannot. Therefore, the absolute value restricts the argument of the antiderivative, ln∣x∣+C, to not make an undefined statement.
∫exdx
ex+C
∫axdx
lnaax+C
∫cosxdx
sinx+C
∫sinxdx
−cosx+C
∫sec2xdx
tanx+C
∫csc2xdx
−cotx+C
∫secxtanxdx
secx+C
∫cscxcotxdx
−cscx+C
∫1−x21dx
arcsinx+C
∫1−x2−1dx
arccosx+C
∫1+x21dx
arctanx+C
∫a2+x21dx
a1arctan(ax)+C
∫x2−a21dx
2a1lnx+ax−a+C
∫lnxdx
xlnx−x+C
∫ekxdx
k1ekx+C
∫akxdx
klnaakx+C
∫f′(x)e[f(x)]dx
ef(x)+C
∫f(x)f′(x)dx
ln∣f(x)∣+C ; Why do we take the absolute value of “f(x)”?
Answer: The domain of f(x)f′(x)includes x<1; however, the antiderivative of it cannot. Therefore, we require the absolute value to restrict the argument of the antiderivative, ln∣f(x)∣+C, to not cause an undefined statement.
∫f′(x)cos(f(x))dx
sin(f(x))+C
∫f′(x)sin(f(x))dx
−cos(f(x))+C
By parts?
∫f(x)g′(x)=f(x)g(x)−∫f′(x)g(x)
What is the “+C” term in certain integrals and when/why do we include it in certain integrals?
The “constant of integration” is added to indefinite integrals because differentiation maps multiple functions, differing by a constant, to the same derivative. It represents a family of possible antiderivative functions.