ECGs made easy

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Last updated 3:24 AM on 7/21/26
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86 Terms

1
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which term refers to the basic protein units responsible for contraction of the cardiac muscle?

sarcomeres

2
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whic of the following determines coronary artery dominance?

artery giving rise to posterior descending artery

3
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which of the following is the origin of the first heart sound (“lubb”)?

ventricular contraction when AV valves are closing

4
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T or F: the right heart functions as the systemic pump and under high pressures

false

5
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which two coronary arteries are the first to branch off of the aorta?

right and left coronary arteries

6
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the term for the junction that connects cardiac muscle fibers is:

intercalated disks

7
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T or F: the heart receives oxygenated blood during systole

false

8
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T or F: cardiac tamponade is considered a life-threatening condition

true

9
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the layers of the heart from inner to outer are:

endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardium

10
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the atrioventricular valves differ from the semilunar valves in all but the following?

keep blood flowing forward

11
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which of the following is referred to as chronotropy?

change in heart rate

12
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Alpha1 & 2, Beta 1&2, dopamine receptor sites are receptors in which autonomic nervous system?

sympathetic nervous system

13
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which of these is the largest vein that drains the heart muscles?

coronary sinus

14
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muscarinic receptors in cardiac muscle act in which manner?

slows the natural pacing rate of the heart

15
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which of the following is a possible cause of inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium?

anemia

16
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another name given to the sympathetic response is:

autonomic response

17
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given a situation in which a patient has been determined to have suffered a temporary or permanent blockage of a coronary artery, the diagnosis could include which of these terms?

acute coronary syndome

18
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the parasympathetic nervous system controls

rest and digest response

19
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T or F: myocardial ischemia, if not reversed, can lead to myocardial infarction, which is death of the myocardial tissue affected by ischemia

true

20
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what is the definition of angina pectoris?

symptoms such as chest discomfort of sudden onset

21
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specialized nerve tissue that detect changes in blood pressure are known as

baroreceptors

22
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the sympathetic nervous system controls

fight and flight response

23
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what two factors determine cardiac output?

stroke volume, heart rate

24
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epinephrine and norepinephrine are two hormones that are secreted by the adrenal medulla and may cause what to happen?

increase the force of the heart’s contraction

25
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T or F: the cardiac output of the right ventricle is normally equal to that of the left ventricle on a minute-to-minute basis

true

26
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what term refers to the force exerted on the walls of the ventricles at the end of diastole?

preload

27
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what term refers to the pressure or resistance against which the ventricles must pump to eject blood?

afterload

28
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what is the “atrial kick”?

contraction of atria from SA node impulse

29
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what is the normal range of right atrial pressure?

2-6 mmHg

30
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during which part of the cardiac cycle does blood return to the heart?

atrial diastole

31
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T or F: the stroke volume and ejection fraction are expressed the same way and mean the same thing

false

32
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blood pressure is defined as:

force exerted by circulating blood on walls of arteries

33
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if a patient’s stroke volume decreases, what must occur with the heart rate to maintain a constant cardiac output?

increase

34
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what do electrical charges of opposite polarity posses when they are separated?

potential energy

35
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T or F: depolarization is the same thing as contraction

false

36
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where does the 5 phases of the “fast response action potential” occur?

atrial & ventricular myocardial cells, purkinje fibers

37
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what makes pacemaker cells unique compared to other cells?

capable of generating an electrical impulse without nerve stimulation

38
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the difference in electrical charges across cell membrane is expressed as:

membrane potential

39
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what occurs in cells during depolarization

inside of cell becomes positive

40
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what alternate name do myocardial cells have?

mechanical cells

41
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what are electrolytes, such as sodium, potassium, and calcium which carry a positive charge known as?

ions

42
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what state of a cell exists when at rest and the inside of the cell is more negative than the outside?

polarized

43
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what term is defined as the ability of cardiac muscle to respond to external stimulus?

excitability

44
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any beat that originates from a source other than the SA node is called a(n) ___ beat.

ectopic

45
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what period of the cardiac cycle can elicit no response to further stimulation?

absolute refractory period

46
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T or F: the electrical conduction across the AV node is transmitted rapidly to the ventricles

false

47
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what is the term which applies to the spread of an impulse already stimulated by that same impulse?

reentry

48
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two nodes are located in the heart; they are correct as listed below:

AV node-floor right atrium, SA node-upper right atrium

49
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the left bundle branch divides into three division known as:

fasciles

50
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cardiac cells that do not normally function as pacemaker cells which begin to spontaneously depolarize and pacemaker sites other than the SA node suddenly increasing the normal firing rate is called

enhanced automaticity

51
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the _______ has a firing rate of 20-40 BPM

purkinje fibers

52
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where, in the heart’s conduction system, is the speed of impulse conduction the fastest?

His-purkinje system

53
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an accessory pathway is:

an abnormal pathway bypassing the AV node

54
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the difference in placement of non-standard chest leads V7-V9 as opposed to V1-V6 is:

placed further left and towards the back

55
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T or F: each electrode placed in a “V” position is a positive electrode

true

56
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Leads I, II, and III axes form what with the heart at the center? be specific and spell correctly!

Einthoven’s triangle

57
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what non-standard leads can be utilized to visualize infarction of the right ventricle?

V1R-V6R

58
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a reference point that is the average of the limb lead electrical potentials is known as

central terminal

59
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which leads view the heart in the frontal plane?

standard limb leads, augmented limb leads

60
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T or F: horizontal plane leads view the front of the body as though it were flat

false

61
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how many “large” boxes on ECG tracing paper composes the time frame of 1 second?

5

62
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T or F": all three waves must be present for a QRS complex to be considered normal

false

63
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T or F: waveforms are always positive in direction

false

64
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in what manner is the width of the QRS complex most accurately determined?

viewed and measured in more than one lead

65
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in a patient that has a condition such as heart failure or COPD the “P” wave may appear as:

tall and pointed

66
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which explanation describes the QRS complex?

represents ventricular depolarization primarily of left ventricle

67
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what time frame is represented by each “large” box on ECG tracing paper?

.20 seconds

68
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which wave when pronounced in its amplitude and width, can be the marker for myocardial infarction?

Q wave

69
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the vertical axis of ECG graph paper represents

voltage and amplitude

70
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in regards to how each lead “views” the heart two factors determine what each lead sees; one of these factors is the dominance of the left ventricle on the ECG and the second is:

position of the positive electrode on the body

71
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U waves are thought to represent

repolarization of purkinje fibers

72
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T or F: any deviation of the ST segment from the isoelectric line is considered abnormal

false

73
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a peaked T wave could be caused by:

hyperkalemia

74
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R-R measurement determines regularity of ________ and P-P measurements determines regularity of _________.

ventricles, atria

75
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the place on the ECG tracing where the relative refractory period can have greatest impact is

T wave

76
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“Smiley face” and “frowny face” are used in reference to

ST segment

77
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in the large box method of rate determination, the number of large boxes between two consecutive R waves is divided into

300

78
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a cause of an artifact on an ECG tracing could be

all of the above

79
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an abnormal QRS wave is longer than

.11 sec

80
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the fastest way and the method most used to determine ventricular rate is called

six second method

81
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a rapid way to measure QT intervals’ normalcy is to

measure R-R and divide by 2

82
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which of the following is not included when interpreting a rhythm

respiratory rate

83
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the appearance of a variation of less than 0.04 second between the shortest and longest R-R intervals is said to be

essentially regular

84
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the normal length of the PR interval should be between _____ for adults

.12-.20 sec

85
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torsades de pointes is a life-threatening condition that can be caused by

prolonged QT interval, prolonged relative refractory period

86
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PR segments on ECG tracings are usually

horizontal