Apollon Bacteriology

3. Capsules can be used for
a. complement fixation test
b. hemagglutination test
c. serotyping by swelling
d. precipitation test

c. serotyping by swelling

4. To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing
a. antibiotics
b. milk
c. serum
d. b and c

d. b and c

5. The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the
a. nucleus
b. cell wall
c. flagella
d. capsule

d. capsule

6. Dark staining granules are called
a. spores
b. capsules
c. cysts
d. metachromatic

d. metachromatic

7. Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as
a. psychrophilic
b. thermophilic
c. palisades
d. pleomorphic

d. pleomorphic

8. In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the
a. stationary phase
b. logarithmic phase
c. lag phase
d. a and b

a. stationary phase

9. Which genera of bacteria form spores?
a. Corynebacterium
b. Bacillus
c. Clostridium
d. b and c

d. b and c

10. Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called
a. anaerobes
b. aerobes
c. capnophiles
d. aerotolerant

a. anaerobes

11. The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as
a. thermophilic
b. psychrophilic
c. optimum
d. mesophilic

c. optimum

12. A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present?
a. blood agar is too old
b. organism has a capsule
c. plate was incubated too long
d. plate was incubated at too high a temperature

b. organism has a capsule

13. On blood agar plates a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by a zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known
a. gamma-hemolysis
b. beta-hemolysis
c. alpha-hemolysis
d. alpha-prime hemolysis

d. alpha-prime hemolysis

14. When using fractional sterilization the sequence is
a. heating (kills vegetative bacteria)
b. incubation (spores germinate)
c. heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria)
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

15. What is the most effective method of sterilization
a. autoclave
b. dry heat oven
c. boiling
d. disinfection

a. autoclave

16. Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven?
a. Bacillus subtilis
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Salmonella typhi

a. Bacillus subtilis

17. Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?
a. Seitz
b. Millipore (0.22 um)
c. Millipore (0.5 um)
d. a and b

b. Millipore (0.22 um)

18. Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by
a. filtration
b. chemical disinfectants
c. antiseptics
d. cannot be sterilized

a. filtration

19. Which of the following is not a disinfectant?
a. phenol
b. 70% alcohol
c. quaternary ammonium (“quatsâ€)
d. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde

b. 70% alcohol

20. Iodophores are composed of iodine and
a. a phenolic compound
b. a detergent
c. 70% alcohol
d. 90 to 95% alcohol

b. a detergent

21. Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by
a. heat
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. organic material
d. tap water

c. organic material

22. What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental surface safe to handle?
a. decontamination
b. antisepsis
c. disinfectant
d. sterile

a. decontamination

23. What color do gram positive bacteria stain?
a. purple
b. green
c. red
d. maroon

a. purple

24. The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain is
a. Gram's iodine
b. auramine
c. heat
d. acid-alcohol

c. heat

25. How is a smear for an acid-fast stain fixed?
a. methyl alcohol
b. acid-alcohol
c. Tergitol no. 7
d. slide warmer at 65 degrees Celsius for 2 hours

d. slide warmer at 65 degrees Celsius for 2 hours

26. Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically?
a. red
b. blue
c. green
d. purple

a. red

27. Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by which of the following methods?
a. Hiss
b. Kinyoun
c. Ziehl-Neelsen
d. negative staining

b. Kinyoun

28. In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is
a. heated saline
b. acetone
c. acetone-alcohol
d. alcohol + HCl

d. alcohol + HCl

29. An example of a negative stain is
a. auramine-rhodamine stain
b. Gram stain
c. India ink stain
d. methylene blue stain

c. India ink stain

30. Which of the following is NOT gram negative?
a. Peptococcus
b. Salmonella
c. Branhamella
d. Aeromonas

a. Peptococcus

31. Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe?
a. Veilonella
b. Fusobacterium
c. Actinomyces
d. Campylobacter

d. Campylobacter

(microaerophilic)

32. If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials?
a. tryptic soy broth
b. antihistamine
c. Thiol broth
d. brain-heart infusion broth

c. Thiol broth

33. From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically or anaerobically. This is most likely due to
a. anaerobes
b. inhibition by antibiotic therapy
c. uncultivable bacteria, e.g., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M. leprae
d. the specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated

b. inhibition by antibiotic therapy

34. Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing?
a. Antimicrobial Removal Device
b. Isolator
c. Septi-Check
d. none of the above

a. Antimicrobial Removal Device

35. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it
a. removes some antimicrobials
b. prevents phagocytosis
c. neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
d. b and c

d. b and c

36. What is the most abundant flora in throat cultures?
a. Micrococcus
b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Legionella pneumophila

b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus

37. What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures?
a. group A Streptococcus
b. alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
d. Corynebacterium diphtheria

a. group A Streptococcus

38. Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected?
a. some may not produce beta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions
b. streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions
c. streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions
d. neither a nor b

a. some may not produce beta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions

39. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as
a. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
b. Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis
c. Haemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix, Vibrio
d. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria

a. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis

40. Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for
a. determination of mycobacterial growth rate
b. primary culture of anaerobes
c. stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella
d. culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy

d. culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy

41. Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to
a. inhibit gram-positive bacteria
b. inhibit gram-negative bacteria
c. stimulate gram-positive bacteria
d. stimulate gram-negative bacteria

b. inhibit gram-negative bacteria

42. Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine cultures?
a. specimen is diluted
b. bacterial are all motile
c. specimen is more concentrated
d. a and b

c. specimen is more concentrated

43. What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine?
a. many squamous epithelial cells
b. few white blood cells
c. 1 to 2 red blood cells per high power field
d. amorphous urates

a. many squamous epithelial cells

44. In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution?
a. dilution is increased
b. dilution is decreased
c. dilution is increased 20%
d. dilution is not affected

d. dilution is not affected

45. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from
a. cerebrospinal fluid sediment
b. uncentrifuged cerebrospinal fluid
c. heated cerebrospinal fluid
d. frozen cerebrospinal fluid

a. cerebrospinal fluid sediment

46. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually stained with
a. acid-fast stain
b. Gram stain
c. India ink stain
d. b and c

d. b and c

47. Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster?
a. coagglutination tests
b. latex agglutination tests
c. counterimmunoelectrophoresis
d. coagulase test

b. latex agglutination tests

48. Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal fluid?
a. coagglutination tests
b. latex agglutination tests
c. counterimmunoelectrophoresis
d. coagulase test

a. coagglutination test

49. Which of following is not the cause of a venereal disease?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

c. Staphylococcus aureus

50. Using a sheep blood agar plate eliminates beta-hemolytic:
a. Staphylocccus
b. Neisseria
c. Streptococcus
d. Haemophilus

d. Haemophilus

51. A positive tube coagulase test is observed for:
a. Bubbling
b. Agglutination
c. Liquefaction
d. Clotting of plasma

d. Clotting of plasma

52. What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test
a. Rabbit
b. Human
c. Sheep
d. Horse

a. Rabbit

53. Some citrate-positive organisms cause a false-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate
a. And releases calcium
b. As a source of calcium
c. As a beta-lactamase
d. And releases oxygen

a. And releases calcium

54. A non-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram positive coccus is most likely to be:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
d. Streptoccus faecalis

b. Staphylococcus epidermidis

55. The preferred method of differentiating S. aureus from S. epidermidis is
a. Catalase test
b. Coagulase test
c. DNase or mannitol fermentation
d. Phage typing

b. Coagulase test

56. Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females?
a. S. epidermidis
b. S. saprophyticus
c. S. aureus
d. S. hominis

b. S. saprophyticus

57. Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of
a. potassium tellurite medium
b. McConkey agar
c. medium with 7.5% salt concentration
d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium

c. medium with 7.5% salt concentration

58. The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the United States
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Shigella dysenteriae type 1

b. Staphylococcus aureus

59. Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose?
a. staphylococci
b. micrococci
c. a and b
d. neither a nor b

a. staphylococci

60. Which hemolysin, produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci, is oxygen stable and non antigenic?
a. streptolysin A
b. streptolysin S
c. streptolysin G
d. streptolysin O

b. streptolysin S

61. Cultures for beta-hemolytic streptococci must include
a. incubation at 25°C to ensure growth of all strains
b. anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
c. incubation with CO₂
d. media with glucose to show typical hemolysis

b. anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains

62. Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen?
a. botulism toxin
b. streptolysin O
c. catalase
d. coagulase

b. streptolysin O

63. Match the following organisms with the biochemical test that presumptively identify them.
a. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. alpha-hemolytic streptococci
d. group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci
e. Enterococcus

Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci: Bacitracin susceptible

Streptococcus pneumoniae: Optochin disk susceptible

alpha-hemolytic streptococci: Optochin disk resistant

group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci: hippurate hydrolysis positive, CAMP test positive

Enterococcus: bile esculin positive

64. Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test it is reported
a. by genus and species name
b. as "presumptive" with the name of the biochemical test used
c. by its common name
d. none of the above

b. as "presumptive" with the name of the biochemical test used

65. CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that
a. reduces the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci
b. hydrolyzes the B factor
c. causes a change in color
d. enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin

d. enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin

66. A positive Quellung test is
a. oxidation but not fermentation
b. virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
c. visible only by fluorescent light
d. from capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction

d. from capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction

67. Which of the following serological test is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci?
a. Phadebact test
b. fluorescent antibody test
c. Lancefield precipitin test
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

68. When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units?
a. 10.00 Units
b. 5.00 Units
c. 0.02 to 0.04 Units
d. 1.0 to 2.00 Units

c. 0.02 to 0.04 Units

69. Identify the organism associated with the disease.
a. Scarlet fever
b. major pathogen of newborn
c. "strep throat"
d. subacute bacterial endocarditis

a. Scarlet fever: group A streptococci
b. major pathogen of newborn: group B streptococci
c. "strep throat": group A streptococci
d. subacute bacterial endocarditis: alpha-hemolytic streptococci

70. What do the optochin and bacitracin tests have in common?
a. autolysis is a negative results
b. growth inhibition is a positive result
c. they should not be done on blood agar
d. either one will differentiate enterococci from viridians streptococci

b. growth inhibition is a positive result

71. The bile esculin test is used to differentiate
a. enterococci from other group D streptococci
b. Streptococcus faecalis from Listeria
c. group D streptococci from other streptococci
d. pnemococci from other viridians streptococci

c. group D streptococci from other streptococci

72. Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate
a. group A from group B streptococci
b. group B streptococci from enterococci
c. Listeria from streptococci
d. pneumococci from other viridians streptococci

a. group A from group B streptococci

73. A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate hydrolysis positive, bile esculin positive, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl is probably a (an)
a. pneumococcus
b. enterococcus
c. group D streptococci
d. diphtheroid

b. enterococcus

74. Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for
a. production of beta-lactamase
b. bile solubility
c. growth in NaCl
d. resistance to bacitracin

a. production of beta-lactamase

75. Gram-negative, coffee bean shaped diplococcic with adjacent sides flatted is descriptive of which of the following?
a. Neisseria
b. Staphylococcus
c. Listeria
d. Chlamydia

a. Neisseria

76. The diagnosis of gonorrhoea in males can be made from
a. positive urethral smear
b. symptoms
c. history
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

78. What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci?
a. Lowenstein-Jensen
b. modified Thayer-Martin
c. sheep blood agar
d. potassium tellurite

b. modified Thayer-Martin

79. Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium?
a. nystatin
b. vancomycin
c. colistin
d. trimethoprim lactate

d. trimethoprim lactate

80. Thayer-Martin medium is basically a (an)
a. blood agar
b. enriched MacConkey agar
c. enriched chocolate agar
d. potassium tellurite agar

c. enriched chocolate agar

81. What color is a positive oxidase test?
a. blue
b. green
c. yellow
d. dark purple

d. dark purple

82. Which of the following genera are oxidase positive?
a. Moraxella
b. Aeromonas
c. Neisseria
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

83. When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used?
a. put a drop of reagent on the colony
b. rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of the reagent
c. rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

84. What do "PPNG" gonococci produce?
a. penicillin-producing gonococci
b. penicillinase-producing gonococci
c. a and b
d. neither a nor b

b. penicillinase-producing gonococci

85. Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase?
a. chromogenic cephalosporin method
b. acidometric method
c. iodometric method
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

86. Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method?
a. production of acid
b. color change
c. reduction of nitrates
d. decolorization of a starch-iodine mixture

b. color change

87. An oxidase-positive, gram negative coccus from a throat culture may be
a. Staphylococcus
b. an "EEC"
c. Fusobacterium
d. Neisseria

d. Neisseria

88. A fastidious, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a rectal swab might be
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Listeria
d. Branhamella catarrhalis

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

89. Neisseria meningitides degrades which of the following sugars?
a. glucose
b. maltose
c. lactose
d. a and b

d. a and b

90. Which of the following tests can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from a middle-ear fluid?
a. nitrate test
b. urease test
c. indole test
d. beta-lactamase test

d. beta-lactamase test

91. Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media?
a. plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
b. may react with chemicals in the medium
c. because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium
d. none of the above

a. plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing

92.What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium?
a. inhibits normal flora
b. enhances the medium
c. enhances pleomorphism
d. enhances granule production

a. inhibits normal flora

93. Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
a. green
b. blue
c. red
d. gray-black

d. gray-black

94. When culturing Corynebacterium dipththeriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production?
a. Loeffler serum agar
b. Pai coagulated egg medium
c. a and b
d. neither a nor b

c. a and b

95. What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
a. gram-negative, motile cocci
b. gram-positive, motile cocci
c. gram-positive, nonmotile rods
d. gram-negative, nonmotile rods

c. gram-positive, nonmotile rods

96. The terms "palisading", "picket fence", and "Chinese letters" describe the common arrangement of cells of
a. Corynebacterium
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria
c. Actinomyces but not Nocardia
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacteria

a. Corynebacterium

97. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

98. Which of the following are considered diphtheroids?
a. Corynebacterium xerosis
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria
c. Corynebacterium JK
d. a and c

d. a and c

99. Which of the following diphtheroids is found in the normal throat?
a. Propionibacterium acnes
b. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum
c. Corynebacterium xerosis
d. Rhodococcus equi

b. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

100. The Elek test is for the detection of
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
c. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vitro
d. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro

b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro

101. The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form takes
a. 5 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours

c. 24 hours

102. Which of the following is a gram-positive to gram-variable coccobacillus?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Haemophilus influenzae

c. Listeria monocytogenes

103. Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive in which of the following biochemical tests?
a. coagulase test
b. lactose fermentation test
c. catalase test
d. a and c

c. catalase test