E3 WOOD HINTS - FROM C/O 2025 QUIZLET

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124 Terms

1
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what antianginals is a patient given unless contraindicated?

ASA
BB if prior MI
ACEi if DM or LV dysfunction
statin
SL NTG for quick relief

2
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what antianginals are given for daily symptoms/prevention?

BB
CCB
long acting nitrates

3
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what is the first line treatment for angina?

BB

4
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what is the second line treatment for angina?

CCB

5
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what is the first line treatment for vasospastic angina?

CCB (DHP)

6
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BB work best for antianginal in what population?

HF
post MI

7
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sudden discontinuation of BB can cause?

rebound HTN

8
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propranolol can have an adverse effect of?

nightmares

9
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can you combine NDHP and BBs?

NO!!!!! → causes heart block and bradycardia

10
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what antianginal must you be cautious using in case of CYP3A4 interactions?

CCB

11
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when are NDHP CCBs contraindicated for angina?

HR < 60
sBP < 100
acute HF
EF < 40%

12
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what is a big adverse reaction of CCB?

constipation
DHP → HA, flushing, peripheral edema

13
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what is a risk for short acting nitrates (NTG)?

orthostatic HTN → esp if pt is already on BB/CCB/ACE

14
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why are long acting nitrates dosed 12 hrs on/12 hrs off?

to avoid tachyphylaxis

15
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can you use long acting nitrates as monotherapy for prevention of angina?

NO!

16
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what is an ABSOLUTE contraindication for nitrates?

PDE5 inhibitors → leads to severe hypotension, MI, and stroke

17
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what meds are avoided in vasospastic angina?

BB → worsens symptoms

18
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what med is given at first sign of chest pain from ACS?

ASA
use clopidogrel if recent GI bleed or intracranial hemorrhage

19
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when do you give morphine in ACS?

when the pt is unresponsive to nitrates

20
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what is an adverse reaction of morphine use for ACS?

hypotension → d/t histamine release

21
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who do fibrinolytics work best on?

< 75 y/o w/in 12 hrs of onset & only in STEMIs

22
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what is the major adverse reaction of fibrinolytics?

bleeding

23
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what are the contraindications for fibrinolytics?

- surgery < 10 days
- GI bleed < 3 months
- hx of HTN (diastolic > 110)
- active bleed/hemorrhagic disorder
- previous CVA/intracranial tumor
- aortic dissection
- acute pericarditis
- STK prior exposure/allergic rxn
- pregnancy

24
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co-morbidity: HTN

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: BB
alt: NDHP CCB
AVOID: n/a

25
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co-morbidity: prior MI

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: BB
alt: n/a
AVOID: CCB monotherapy (okay to use in combo w BB)

26
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co-morbidity: ↓ LV function

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: BB
alt: amlodipine
AVOID: NDHP CCB (further depresses function)

27
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co-morbidity: bradycardia/AV block

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: DHP CCB
alt: LA nitrate
AVOID: NDHP & BB

28
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co-morbidity: DM

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: NDHP CCB
alt: LA nitrate or CS BB
AVOID: NCS BB

29
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co-morbidity: asthma

1st line tx:

alt:

AVOID:

1st line tx: NDHP or CS BB
alt: n/a
AVOID: NCS BB

30
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what diuretics are mainstay therapy for CHF?

loops

31
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are diuretics mandatory for treatment of CHF?

NO

32
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are ACEs and BB mandatory for treatment of CHF?

YES

33
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what class of drugs for CHF have a risk of impairing renal function?

ACE (and ARBs)

34
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what is a benefit of using a BB for CHF?

↑ EF & slows disease progression

35
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what is the first line treatment for CHF + afib?

digoxin

36
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what are adverse effects of digoxin?

xanthopsia → yellow-green halos

↑ PR int, ↓ QT int, depressed ST & sinus bradycardia

37
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what is a contraindication for digoxin?

hyperkalemia → risk for arrhythmias is very high
monitor electrolytes!

38
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what is the antidote for digoxin?

Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)

39
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what does DIgibind do?

binds to the antigen-binding site of Ig and reverts everything back to normal
- so if pt was in afib before taking digoxin, they will go back into afib

40
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what makes a pt "not eligible" for spironolactone in treatment of CHF?

K > 5 or serum Cr > 2.5

41
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when is Spiro used for CHF?

later stages (3 or 4)

42
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what population is milrinone and inamrinone best for?

hypertensive patients

43
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what population is dopamine (for CHF) best for?

hypotensive patients

44
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what is the MOA of dobutamine?

β1 agonist → ↑ force of contraction
- only used short term to stabilize pts!

45
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what is a drug interaction for quinidine?

CYP2D6 inhibitors (codeine, morphine) → causes exaggerated effects of drug

46
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what are adverse reactions for quinidine?

cinchonism → tinnitus, dizziness, blurred vision
sudden death
torsades

47
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what is procainamide metabolized through?

the acetylation pathway

48
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what are adverse reactions of procainamide?

lupus like syndrome → slow acetylators
torsades

49
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what are adverse reactions of disopyramide?

CHF (↓ contractility)
torsades

50
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what antiarrhythmics are rate vs rhythm control?

rate control → class 2 & 4
rhythm control → 1 & 3

51
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lidocaine is most effective on Na channels in what kind of tissue?

ischemic

52
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what is an early sign of lidocaine toxicity?

nystagmus

53
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what is a contraindication for lidocaine?

seizure history

54
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what are adverse reactions of propranolol?

worsened HF
heart block
hypotension
bronchospasm

55
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what is the MOA of amiodarone?

block Na, K, & CA channels

blocks a & b receptors

prolongs refractory periods

56
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what are adverse effects of amiodarone?

pulmonary fibrosis
blue-grey skin color
thyroid abnormalities

57
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what are drug interactions with amiodarone?

digoxin, warfarin, flecainide, phenytoin, procainamide
- CYP3A4 inhibitor!
increases levels of these drugs

58
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what are adverse reactions of dofetilide?

QT prolongation → torsades
renal eliminated → monitor electrolytes

59
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class 4 antiarrhythmics only work on?

SUPRAventricular arrhythmias

60
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what are adverse effects of verapamil & diltiazem?

hypotension
bradycardia
- CYP3A4 inhibitors!

61
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when do you use adenosine?

PSVT

62
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what is the treatment of torsades?

Magnesium

63
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what are adverse effects of magnesium?

hypotension
- watch renal function & mag levels

64
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you have a patient who you suspect a MDR nosocomial PNA, they are in the hospital for 1 week and develop a ventilator associated PNA and you need to start ABX ASAP, what is the treatment?

2 drugs that cover pseudomonas (double-cover bc of resistance)

PLUS

vanco/linezolid (for gram + coverage)

65
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nosocomial PNA treatment for MDR pathogens

anti-pseudo ceph (cefepime) or carbapenem (merepenem) or Zosyn

PLUS

anti-pseudo FQ or aminoglycoside

PLUS

vanco or linezoid

66
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what is important to know for all of the ABX that treat MDR nosocomial PNA?

except for linezolid, they are ALL really eliminated!

must watch renal function!!!!

67
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TB meds and their side effects

Rifampin → induces CYP450 enzymes; orange body secretions

Ethambutol → ↓ red-green discrimination; ↑ uric acid levels

Pyrazinamide → inhibs uric acid secretion; avoid in prenancy

Isoniazid → peripheral neuritis = give B6; lupus-like syndrome

68
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dosages of volume expansion!

IV crystalloids (0.9% NaCl)
20mL/kg bolus (1-2 L at a time)
4:2:1

69
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what are IV crystalloids used for?

profound vasodilation/hypotension

70
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preferred reliever asthma med

SABA PRN or low-dose ICS-fomoterol

71
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step 1 asthma treatment controller med

PRN low-dose ICS-fomoterol
OR
low-dose ICS

72
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step 2 asthma treatment controller med

DAILY low-dose ICS
OR
PRN low-dose ICS-fomoterol

alt: LTRA

73
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step 3 asthma treatment controller med

DAILY low-dose ICS-LABA
OR
med-dose ICS
OR
low-dose ICS + LRTA

74
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step 4 asthma treatment controller med

med-dose ICS-LABA
OR
high-dose ICS
OR
add-on tiotropium or LTRA

75
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step 5 asthma treatment controller med

high-dose ICS-LABA +/- biologic or tiotropium
OR
low-dose OCS (consider SE)

76
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can LABA be used for monotherapy?

NO!!

77
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status asthmaticus treatment

continuous albuterol
IV steroids
magnesium bolus (followed by continuous infusion)
ketamine (if intubated)

78
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COPD treatment classes

A = short-acting bronchodilator (SABA/SAMA/SABA+SAMA) PRN

B = long-acting bronchodilator (LAMA/LABA) daily + SABA PRN

C = LAMA daily + SABA PRN

D = LAMA or LAMA+LABA daily + SABA PRN

79
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what should you educate your patient on while using nicotine replacement?

if they relapse (start smoking again), they MUST STOP the nicotine replacement or else there is a high risk for nicotine OD!

80
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black box warning for Chantix

neuropsychiatric events (depression, suicidal ideations, vivid dreams)

81
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What statins are metabolized by CYP3A4?

atorvastatin
lovastatin
simvastatin

82
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adverse rxns of statins

↑ liver enzymes
myalgia
myopathy
rhabdomyolysis

83
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what test is used to monitor muscle toxicity?

CPK

84
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which antihyperlipidemic is safe for pregnancy, kids and adolescence?

bile acid sequestrants → they aren't absorbed in GI tract

85
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if someone is taking CYP450 drug, what should they not drink?

grapefruit/grapefruit juice
- he really harped on this and it's probably not important but oh well

86
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what is the first line treatment/gold standard for HDL?

statins

87
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ezetimibe + statin relationship?

they are synergistic in ↓ LDL

88
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which antihyperlipidemic can ↑ effects of warfarin?

fibrates

89
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how to avoid cardio drug interactions with bile acid sequestrants?

take interacting med 1 hour before or 4 hours after bile acid sequestrant

90
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bile acid sequestrant (resins) effect on TG?

increases!!!

91
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what drug causes cutaneous flushing and what can help prevent it?

seen with niacin
prevent by taking ASA

92
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what meds are the best at ↑ HDL?

niacin & fibrates

93
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which meds are the best at ↓ TG?

niacin & fibrates

94
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four major groups that benefit from statins

1. clinical ASCVD
2. LDL > 190
3. 40-75 y/o DM w/ LDL 70-189 and w/o clinical ASCVD
4. w/o clinical ASCVD or DM but w/ LDL 70-189 + estimated 10-yr ASCVD risk > 7.5%

95
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which diuretics cause hypokalemia?

loop and thiazide

96
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"a pt has a potassium of 5.5, which one of these diuretics are contraindicated?"
a. loop diuretic
b. thiazide diuretic
c. potassium sparing diuretic
d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

potassium sparing diuretic (triamterene)

97
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if a patient is having a lot of side effects from spironolactone, what can they be switched to?

eplerenone (it has less effect on androgen receptors)

98
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what is the result of ↓ aldosterone secretion?

potassium levels ↑

99
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what meds cause hyperkalemia?

potassium sparing diuretics
ACE-I
ARBs

100
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it a patient has HTN along with other comobidities (like T2DM), what medication is the best for treating HTN?

ARBs