INDUSTRIAL ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY

As a human resource officer, you are responsible for employee recruitment, selection, and performance evaluation. Which branch of psychology involves these human resource functions?

A. Industrial Psychology

B. Organizational Psychology

C. Industrial/Organizational Psychology

D. Personnel Psychology

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D. Personnel Psychology

RATIONALIZATION: Personnel Psychology is the subfield of I/O psychology that focuses specifically on the recruitment, selection, placement, training, and evaluation of employees. It is concerned with individual differences and aligning them with job requirements.

A psychologist surveys the employees' perception regarding the company's strengths and weaknesses and recommends how the identified areas can be improved. Which branch of psychology is this psychologist operating in?

A. Industrial Psychology

B. Organizational Psychology

C. Industrial/Organizational Psychology

D. Personnel Psychology

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B. Organizational Psychology

RATIONALIZATION: Organizational Psychology focuses on the social and group influences in the workplace, including employee attitudes, motivation, communication, leadership, and organizational culture. Surveying perceptions to recommend improvements falls under organizational development, a key area of this branch.

Which of the following statements falls under the study of human factors?

A. Determining which employee to promote or remove.

B. Arranging the layout of the office for maximum efficiency.

C. Giving surveys to employees to determine their attitude toward the current administration.

D. Creating a counseling program for the employees.

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B. Arranging the layout of the office for maximum efficiency.

RATIONALIZATION: Human Factors (or Ergonomics) is the field that studies how to design technology, tools, and work environments to be compatible with human capabilities and limitations. Arranging an office layout for efficiency and safety is a classic example of applying human factors principles.

Which of the following tasks is least likely to be performed by a human resource officer?

A. Recruit through social media platforms.

B. Provide counseling and therapy to troubled employees.

C. Make promotion decisions based on performance evaluations.

D. Conducting team-building activities.

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B. Provide counseling and therapy to troubled employees.

RATIONALIZATION: Providing clinical counseling and therapy requires a separate license and training as a clinical psychologist or counselor. While an HR officer may refer an employee to an Employee Assistance Program (EAP), they do not personally provide therapy.

Theories that emphasize formal organization, such as Scientific Management Theory and Administrative Theory, are categorized under which grand Organizational Theory?

A. Classical Organizational Theory

B. Neo-classical Organizational Theory

C. Modern Organizational Theory

D. Contingency Theory

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A. Classical Organizational Theory

RATIONALIZATION: Classical Organizational Theory, emerging in the early 20th century, is the umbrella term for theories like Taylor's Scientific Management and Fayol's Administrative Theory. These theories viewed organizations as machines and focused on formal structure, hierarchy, and efficiency.

With the trade wars occurring around the globe, rising cost of production, and civil and political instability, Benny is reconsidering his decision to expand his company and decides to put it off for another five years. Which of the following organizational theories is he adhering to?

A. Classical Organizational Theory

B. Neo-classical Organizational Theory

C. Modern Organizational Theory

D. Contingency Theory

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C. Modern Organizational Theory

RATIONALIZATION: Modern Organizational Theories (including Systems Theory and Contingency Theory) view organizations as open systems that interact with and are affected by their external environment. Benny's decision is based on external factors, which is a hallmark of modern organizational thought.

Which of the following would likely be Toph's first step to structuring her business?

A. Count how many employees she has currently and how many she plans to hire in the next few months.

B. Identify the job titles and designs in her business and how they differ from one another.

C. Examine how her competitors have structured their businesses and simply model after them.

D. All of the above are equally valid starting points.

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B. Identify the job titles and designs in her business and how they differ from one another.

RATIONALIZATION: Before structuring a business, one must first understand the work that needs to be done. Identifying the different jobs and the tasks associated with them (a form of job analysis) is the foundational step upon which departmentalization and hierarchy are built.

If Toph focused on expanding her line of services from gardening to now offering landscaping, what kind of departmentalization would BEST fit her goal?

A. Functional Departmentalization

B. Division Departmentalization

C. Geographical Departmentalization

D. Authority Departmentalization

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B. Division Departmentalization

RATIONALIZATION: Divisional departmentalization involves grouping jobs based on the product or service offered. Creating separate divisions for "gardening" and "landscaping" would allow for specialized focus on each service line.

Toph's business partner recommends switching their pine tree seedlings and fertilizers supplier from Pangasinan to Baguio to cut costs. If she were to structure her business per this recommendation, what kind of departmentalization would BEST fit her goal?

A. Functional Departmentalization

B. Division Departmentalization

C. Geographical Departmentalization

D. Authority Departmentalization

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C. Geographical Departmentalization

RATIONALIZATION: Geographical departmentalization involves structuring the organization based on physical locations. Focusing operations or departments around specific locations like Pangasinan and Baguio fits this model.

Which human resource function must be conducted first before a training program, recruitment ad, or an organizational chart can be made?

A. Job evaluation

B. Job analysis

C. Grievance system

D. Performance Evaluations

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B. Job analysis

RATIONALIZATION: Job analysis is the cornerstone of most HR functions. It is the systematic process of gathering information about a job's tasks, responsibilities, and required qualifications. This information is essential to write a job description (for recruitment), determine training needs, and establish performance appraisal criteria.

You are responsible for conducting a job analysis as the human resource assistant director. Which of the following are part of that task?

A. Writing the tasks for each job.

B. Describing how employees are doing their job.

C. Identifying machines and tools needed for each job.

D. Identifying the requirements needed to do each job.

E. All of the above.

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E. All of the above.

RATIONALIZATION: A thorough job analysis includes all the listed components: identifying the tasks (what is done), the working conditions (how it is done), the tools used, and the human requirements or competencies (KSAOs) needed to perform the job successfully.

Which of the following is NOT a way to do the job analysis?

A. Observe the ones already in the position you are creating the job analysis for.

B. Participate in the job and the tasks yourself.

C. Talk to supervisors or people who have previously been in the position.

D. Look at an older job analysis that has already been made.

E. All are valid ways of conducting job analysis.

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E. All are valid ways of conducting job analysis.

RATIONALIZATION: All the options listed are established and valid methods for gathering job-related information. These include direct observation, participation, interviewing subject-matter experts (SMEs), and reviewing existing documentation.

What part of a job description is MOST likely to determine an employee's or an applicant's identity in the workplace and their perception of the job?

A. Internal Pay Equity

B. Work equipment

C. Job Competencies

D. Job Title

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D. Job Title

RATIONALIZATION: The job title is often the first piece of information a person receives about a role and carries significant weight regarding status, identity, and social perception. It creates an immediate impression of the job's level and function within the organization.

Amy has quick reflexes and fast reaction time. Which competency would these be categorized under?

A. Knowledge

B. Skills

C. Abilities

D. Other

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C. Abilities

RATIONALIZATION: In the KSAO model, an 'Ability' is a natural, underlying capacity to perform physical or mental tasks (e.g., reaction time, verbal reasoning). A 'Skill' is a learned proficiency (e.g., typing). Quick reflexes are an innate ability.

Tony was not accepted as a military cadet despite being a professional martial artist due to his poor vision. What does he lack?

A. Knowledge

B. Skill

C. Ability

D. Others

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C. Ability

RATIONALIZATION: While Tony possesses the learned 'skill' of martial arts, he lacks the required physical 'ability' (good vision). This demonstrates that both skills and abilities can be essential job requirements and one cannot always compensate for the other.

Carlos is applying to be a medical representative. The recruiter tells him they need a copy of his driver's license and all the training certificates relevant to the job. How will these be categorized?

A. Knowledge

B. Skill

C. Ability

D. Others

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D. Others

RATIONALIZATION: In the KSAO competency model, the 'O' stands for "Other characteristics." This category includes tangible requirements like licenses, certifications, personality traits, and degrees that are not classified as knowledge, skills, or abilities.

Which test did Flanagan develop with his students to determine successful and unsuccessful job performance, which could be used for job analysis?

A. JCI

B. TTA

C. CIT

D. O*NET

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C. CIT

RATIONALIZATION: John C. Flanagan developed the Critical Incident Technique (CIT). This method involves gathering reports of behaviors (incidents) that were especially effective or ineffective in accomplishing the job, which helps in creating a detailed picture of performance requirements.

Allison wonders why her colleagues are paid more than she is, even if they share the same position and work the same hours. Which of the following human resource functions would MOST likely explain this difference?

A. Payrolling

B. Job evaluation

C. Job costing

D. Incentivizing

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B. Job evaluation

RATIONALIZATION: Job evaluation is the systematic process of determining the relative worth of jobs within an organization to create a fair and logical pay structure. This process would establish the salary range for a position, which could be affected by factors like seniority or specific duties, explaining the pay difference.

Statement I. Internal pay equity only compares jobs within the company. Statement II. It is inappropriate for a company to compare its employees' salaries to those of employees in another company in the same industry.

A. Only I is TRUE

B. Only II is TRUE

C. Both are TRUE

D. Both are FALSE

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A. Only I is TRUE

RATIONALIZATION: Statement I is the definition of internal pay equity. Statement II is false; companies regularly engage in this practice, called external pay equity, by using salary surveys to ensure their compensation is competitive in the market.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration when determining and comparing the salaries of jobs within an organization?

A. The organization's market position in its respective industry.

B. Educational attainment of employees.

C. Whether employees work in the field, at home, or in the office.

D. All of the above are considerations.

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A. The organization's market position in its respective industry.

RATIONALIZATION: An organization's market position is a key factor for external pay equity (deciding how to pay relative to competitors). When determining internal pay equity (comparing jobs within the company), factors like education (B) and working conditions (C) are considered as compensable factors.

Which of the following situations is NOT an example of external pay equity?

A. May is paid more than Mae since she has been with the company longer.

B. Denise and Denis are paid the same, but Denis demands more since he works the night shift.

C. Gail works for the finance department and is paid more than Gale, who works in housekeeping.

D. All of the above

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D. All of the above.

RATIONALIZATION: External pay equity involves comparing an organization's pay rates to those of other companies. All the situations described (A, B, and C) are examples of internal pay equity issues, as they involve pay comparisons between employees within the same company based on factors like seniority, shift, or job type.

Sebu Pacifier and Philippine Airplane are both in the airline industry. Sebu wants to determine whether the pay for their flight attendants is fair and competitive. What is the best way to gather this information?

A. Ask for a salary survey from Philippine Airplane that lists how much they pay their employees.

B. Hire flight attendants who were formerly employed by Philippine Airplanes and ask them.

C. The information that Sebu is looking for is usually public and can be accessed easily online.

D. Request for an audit of Philippine Airplane.

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C. The information that Sebu is looking for is usually public and can be accessed easily online.

RATIONALIZATION: To achieve external equity, companies use salary surveys, which collect compensation data from various employers in the same industry and labor market. This data is often aggregated and made public or sold by consulting firms.

The issue of comparable worth is seen in which of the following?

A. Ash finds it unfair that Gary is given bigger opportunities because he is white. What Ash does not know is that Gary has better qualifications.

B. John and Mandy are at the same level regarding credentials and qualifications. However, John is given a higher-paying job than Mandy in the same company.

C. Mia advocates for transparency and open communication. She knows that there are problems with how funds are handled.

D. Jin is the oldest worker on his cruise ship, but is given the most challenging work.

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B. John and Mandy are at the same level regarding credentials and qualifications. However, John is given a higher-paying job than Mandy in the same company.

RATIONALIZATION: Comparable worth is the principle that jobs of equal value to an organization should be compensated equally, even if the jobs are different in content. This issue often arises in cases of gender pay disparity where jobs traditionally held by men and women are paid differently despite having comparable worth.

Charmie accuses Cynthia of stealing her lunch, claiming that it always disappears whenever Cynthia is around. As the human resource officer, you listen to both sides and help them reach a mutually agreeable resolution. What role are you performing in this situation?

A. Auditor

B. Ombudsperson

C. Arbiter

D. Mediator

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D. Mediator

RATIONALIZATION: A mediator is a neutral third party who facilitates discussion between disputing parties to help them reach a voluntary agreement. The mediator does not impose a solution, which is the key action described.

Unfortunately, Charmie and Cynthia from no. 29 were not able to agree on a compromise. Hence, you review their arguments and decide that Cynthia should compensate Charmie and be transferred to another department. What role are you performing in this situation?

A. Auditor

B. Ombudsperson

C. Arbiter

D. Mediator

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C. Arbiter

RATIONALIZATION: An arbiter (or arbitrator) is a neutral third party who listens to both sides of a dispute and then makes a final, binding decision to resolve it. Imposing a solution is the key difference between an arbiter and a mediator.

Peter filed a complaint against OSCORP, and a decision was made in OSCORP's favor. Peter is unable to pursue his case anymore. What decision was made?

A. Absolute Mediation

B. Non-contestable Audit

C. Binding Arbitration

D. Non-binding Arbitration

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C. Binding Arbitration

RATIONALIZATION: Binding arbitration means that the decision made by the arbitrator is final and legally enforceable. The parties agree beforehand to accept the decision and waive their right to sue in court over the matter, which is why Peter cannot pursue his case.

After an hour of debating whose idea should be implemented, Hans tells his coworker, "Okay, arguing won't work things out. How about we scrap everything and make a new plan together instead?" What conflict management style is depicted?

A. Competing

B. Collaborating

C. Avoiding

D. Accommodating

E. Compromising

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B. Collaborating

RATIONALIZATION: The collaborating style is a win-win approach where both parties work together to find a solution that fully satisfies everyone's concerns. The suggestion to create a new plan together exemplifies this cooperative and problem-solving approach.

"I'll have to ask for approval first before I decide. This is beyond my jurisdiction," the program head tells the employees, asking her to let some students retake courses they failed. What conflict management style is depicted?

A. Competing

B. Collaborating

C. Avoiding

D. Accommodating

E. Compromising

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C. Avoiding

RATIONALIZATION: The avoiding style involves sidestepping, postponing, or withdrawing from a conflict. By stating the issue is beyond her jurisdiction and deferring the decision, the program head is avoiding direct engagement with the conflict.

Stewie is the vice president of an advertising company. He is perverted and biased, promoting employees who grant him sexual favors. What is this called?

A. Hostile Environment

B. Sexual Harassment

C. Quid Pro Quo

D. Abuse of Power

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C. Quid Pro Quo

RATIONALIZATION: Quid pro quo is a Latin phrase meaning "this for that." In the context of sexual harassment, it refers to situations where a person in authority demands sexual favors in exchange for job benefits (like a promotion) or to avoid negative consequences (like termination).

Which of the following is TRUE about harassment in the workplace?

A. A single occurrence of quid pro quo can already warrant legal action.

B. Work environments are considered hostile if they inhibit an employee from doing their job.

C. Generally, it is unethical for employers and employees to engage in relationships, even if it is consensual.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

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D. All of the above.

RATIONALIZATION: Statement A is true because quid pro quo is a severe form of harassment. Statement B is true as the "severe or pervasive" standard for a hostile environment means it interferes with work. Statement C is true in many contexts, especially between supervisors and subordinates, due to power imbalances, leading many companies to have policies against it.

Security cameras were installed in Caroline's office without her knowledge, and her work emails were monitored. If she were to file a case, on what grounds would her arguments be valid?

A. The right to privacy is a fundamental human right and must always be upheld.

B. Caroline had no previous knowledge of the company's intentions. They failed to communicate their safety procedures to the employees.

C. The company has the right to do these procedures without prior notice since they have sovereignty over its employees.

D. Filing a case against her employers is impossible since the company owns Caroline's office and computer.

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B. Caroline had no previous knowledge of the company's intentions. They failed to communicate their safety procedures to the employees.

RATIONALIZATION: While employers generally have the right to monitor their property, this right is limited by the employee's reasonable expectation of privacy. The key legal argument often hinges on whether employees were notified. Surveillance without notification or consent is a significant breach of privacy.

As a hotel manager, Berry must have a plan to attract job seekers to address the surge of tourists in the summer season. Which of the following should he focus on?

A. Advertising

B. Recruitment

C. Drafting

D. Selection

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B. Recruitment

RATIONALIZATION: Recruitment is the overall process of attracting, sourcing, and identifying qualified candidates for job openings. Advertising (A) is just one method used within the broader process of recruitment.

Statement I. Hiring externally costs more than hiring from within the company. Statement II. Internal recruitment increases employee morale and motivation.

A. Only I is TRUE

B. Only II is TRUE

C. Both are TRUE

D. Both are FALSE

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C. Both are TRUE

RATIONALIZATION: Statement I is generally true due to costs associated with advertising, screening, and longer onboarding times for external hires. Statement II is also true because promoting from within shows employees there are opportunities for career advancement, which can boost morale and motivation.

Among the following recruitment methods, which has the MOST predictive validity?

A. Job Postings

B. Job Fairs

C. Employee Referrals

D. Situation-Wanted Method

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C. Employee Referrals

RATIONALIZATION: Research consistently shows that employee referrals are a highly effective recruitment source. Current employees tend to refer candidates who are not only qualified but also a good fit for the company culture, leading to better performance and lower turnover.

Niall has difficulties looking for a job he is qualified for in the newspaper. He decided to advertise himself to employers by creating an online profile detailing his education and work experience. What is he using?

A. Point-of-Purchase Method

B. Situation-Wanted Method

C. Blind-Box Method

D. Job Posting Method

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B. Situation-Wanted Method

RATIONALIZATION: A situation-wanted ad (or method) is when a job seeker, rather than an employer, places an advertisement describing their skills and the type of job they are seeking.

Niall sees an ad that says, "Psychometrician wanted! Enjoy a 12,000-15,000 monthly salary plus benefits! Interested? Call this number now!" He noticed that the company name was not written on the ad. What type of hiring method did the company employ?

A. Point-of-Purchase Method

B. Situation-Wanted Method

C. Blind-Box Method

D. Blind Hiring

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C. Blind-Box Method

RATIONALIZATION: A blind-box ad is a job advertisement that intentionally omits the name of the hiring organization. Companies use this method for various reasons, such as to avoid a flood of applicants or to discreetly replace a current employee.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why companies would remove their name from a hiring ad?

A. Prestigious hiring companies want to avoid the massive influx of applicants who wish to work for them despite being unqualified.

B. Companies with bad reputations do not want their potential applicants to be discouraged.

C. Companies want their customers to be employees by posting ads where they are most visible.

D. Companies want to avoid the hassle and drama of a current employee finding out they will be replaced through a hiring ad for their position.

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C. Companies want their customers to be employees by posting ads where they are most visible.

RATIONALIZATION: Option C describes a point-of-purchase recruitment method (e.g., a "Help Wanted" sign in a store window). This method relies on the company's name and location being visible, which is the opposite of a blind-box ad.

Which is the best method for evaluating the effectiveness of a hiring method?

A. Determining the cost per applicant.

B. Determining the cost per qualified applicant.

C. Determining the number of applicants attracted.

D. Determining the number of successful applicants.

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D. Determining the number of successful applicants.

RATIONALIZATION: The ultimate goal of a recruitment method is to produce high-performing, long-term employees. Therefore, tracking the number of successful applicants (those hired who perform well) that come from each source is the best measure of its true effectiveness, considering both quality and outcome.

What type of resume are you making if you arrange your work experience and skills from the most relevant to the least relevant, considering the job requirements you are applying for?

A. Chronological resume

B. Functional resume

C. Graduating resume

D. Psychological resume

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B. Functional resume

RATIONALIZATION: A functional resume emphasizes skills and abilities grouped by area of expertise, rather than listing work history in chronological order. This format is ideal for highlighting relevant skills when one has gaps in employment or is changing careers.

After your interview with an applicant for the position of a schoolteacher, you say, "I would like to tell you that most of your time will be spent preparing lean materials. Sometimes you must also operate the sound system for our flag ceremonies. If hired, you will only be given five subjects until you become a regular employee. Our headteachers are also strict regarding visual aids." What are you giving the applicant?

A. Realistic Job Preview

B. Expectation Lowering Procedure

C. Tell and Sell Feedback

D. Preliminary Orientation

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A. Realistic Job Preview

RATIONALIZATION: A Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is a recruitment technique that gives applicants an honest and balanced picture of a job, including both positive and negative aspects. This helps manage expectations and can lead to higher job satisfaction and lower turnover.

Statement I. There is no legal liability if you falsify your credentials if it is not your resume or CV. Statement II. A reference person can state anything in a reference letter, even if it is negative, if they believe it to be true.

A. Only I is TRUE

B. Only II is TRUE

C. Both are TRUE

D. Both are FALSE

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B. Only II is TRUE

RATIONALIZATION: Statement I is false; resume fraud or falsifying credentials on any application document is illegal and grounds for termination. Statement II is generally true under the principle of "qualified privilege," which protects a reference from defamation claims as long as the information is believed to be true, is job-related, and is not given with malicious intent.

The company had done a thorough background and reference check before hiring an employee who injured a client. They found nothing suspicious to indicate a history of negative behavior. Based on these details, does the client have the right to sue the company for negligent hiring?

A. Yes, since the company bears jurisdiction over its employees.

B. Yes, since the company did not do enough to ensure the integrity and moral character of the hired people.

C. No, since it should be the employee who should be sued.

D. No, since the company did all the necessary procedures, which gave them no reason not to hire the person.

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D. No, since the company did all the necessary procedures, which gave them no reason not to hire the person.

RATIONALIZATION: Negligent hiring occurs when an employer knew or should have known that an employee was unfit for the job. If a company performs a thorough and reasonable background check (due diligence) and finds no red flags, it has a strong defense against a negligent hiring lawsuit.

This is a widely used group cognitive ability test administered in approximately 12 minutes.

A. Wonderlic Personnel Test

B. Wonderlic Personality Test

C. Siena Reasoning Test

D. Basic Cognitive Reasoning Test

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A. Wonderlic Personnel Test

RATIONALIZATION: The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a well-known cognitive ability test consisting of 50 questions to be answered in 12 minutes. It is widely used in business and even in the NFL to assess general intelligence and problem-solving skills.

Sonnie, applying to be a psychometrician, was asked to administer an intelligence test while the recruiter assessed him. What is this selection method?

A. Simulation

B. Business Games

C. Work Sample

D. In-basket

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C. Work Sample

RATIONALIZATION: A work sample is a selection method where applicants are asked to perform tasks that are a direct and representative sample of the work required for the job. Having a psychometrician applicant administer a test is a perfect example.

This selection technique simulates job tasks wherein applicants must sort information into those already completed and those yet to be handled.

A. Simulation

B. Business Games

C. Work Sample

D. In-basket

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D. In-basket

RATIONALIZATION: The in-basket technique is a simulation where an applicant is given a set of memos, emails, phone messages, and tasks ("in-basket" items) typical for the job and must prioritize and handle them within a time limit. It assesses administrative and decision-making skills.

Which selection method is the least likely to predict future job performance among the following selection methods?

A. Interviews

B. Work Samples

C. Interest Inventories

D. Reference or recommendation letters

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D. Reference or recommendation letters

RATIONALIZATION: Research consistently shows that letters of recommendation have very low validity in predicting job performance. This is because applicants choose their own referees, leading to overwhelmingly positive and often uninformative letters.

What is NOT a characteristic of a completely unstructured interview format?

A. It is less defensible in court.

B. It has standardized scoring.

C. It is perceived to be more accommodating to applicants.

D. It requires a greater amount of experience from an interviewer.

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B. It has standardized scoring.

RATIONALIZATION: Unstructured interviews, by definition, lack standardization. They do not have a set of predetermined questions or a standardized scoring key, which is a hallmark of structured interviews. This lack of standardization makes them subjective and legally risky.

Statement I. Structured interviews are easier to score than unstructured interviews. Statement II. Unstructured interviews allow applicants more freedom to answer questions and share other information.

A. Only I is TRUE

B. Only II is TRUE

C. Both are TRUE

D. Both are FALSE

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C. Both are TRUE

RATIONALIZATION: Statement I is true because structured interviews use a scoring guide based on predetermined answers. Statement II is true because the flexible, conversational nature of unstructured interviews allows for more open-ended responses and applicant-driven tangents.

Why is the question 'What makes you different from other applicants?' not ideal for interviews?

A. Because it is a disqualifier.

B. Because it invades the privacy of an applicant.

C. Because it is not job-related.

D. Because it is too easy to answer.

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C. Because it is not job-related.

RATIONALIZATION: Good interview questions are designed to be job-related and assess specific competencies. This question is vague and invites generic, unverifiable answers. An applicant cannot know how they compare to others, so the question does not effectively predict job performance.

"How were you able to prove to your previous employer that you were a hard worker?" What kind of interview question is this?

A. Clarifier

B. Disqualifier

C. Situational

D. Behavioral

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D. Behavioral

RATIONALIZATION: This is a behavioral description interview (BDI) question. It asks the applicant to describe a past situation and explain how they behaved. The premise is that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior.

"Can you work on weekends?" or "Are you open to moving to our Pampanga branch after two months?" are what types of interview questions?

A. Clarifier

B. Disqualifier

C. Situational

D. Behavioral

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B. Disqualifier

RATIONALIZATION: A disqualifier question addresses a core requirement of the job (like availability or location). A "no" answer may automatically disqualify the candidate from further consideration because they cannot meet a non-negotiable job demand.

Which of the following is a situational interview question?

A. In your resume, you did not work from 2012 to 2016. May I ask why?

B. Say a customer pays you to process her documents before the other customers are in line. What would you do?

C. Can you share a challenging experience with a coworker in your previous company and how you got past it?

D. Do you have your driver's license already?

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B. Say a customer pays you to process her documents before the other customers are in line. What would you do?

RATIONALIZATION: A situational interview question presents a hypothetical future-oriented scenario ("What would you do if...") to gauge an applicant's judgment and problem-solving skills. Option B is the only one that presents such a scenario. (A is a clarifier, C is behavioral, D is a disqualifier).

What scoring method is used if there are several possible answers with corresponding points to interview questions?

A. Right/Wrong Approach

B. Typical-Answers Approach

C. Key-Issues Approach

D. Lawshe Formula

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B. Typical-Answers Approach

RATIONALIZATION: The typical-answer approach is a method for scoring structured interviews where a list of potential answers is created in advance, and different point values are assigned to each answer (e.g., 5 points for an excellent answer, 3 for a good one, 1 for a poor one).

Carmela ranks the applicants by their scores and then selects the highest scorer, moving downwards until she fills all their job vacancies. What type of selection method was used?

A. Top-Down

B. Rule of Three

C. Banding

D. Passing Scores

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A. Top-Down

RATIONALIZATION: Top-down selection is the process of ranking candidates based on their test scores and selecting applicants in order from highest to lowest score until all open positions are filled.

Susan, Peter, and Edmund scored the highest during the selection process. The recruiter submits their profile to the HR director, who makes the hiring decisions. What kind of selection technique is this?

A. Passing Scores

B. Top-Down

C. Rule of Three

D. Multiple Cut-Off

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C. Rule of Three

RATIONALIZATION: The rule of three is a selection approach where the top three scoring candidates are presented to the hiring manager, who can then choose any of the three. This provides more flexibility than a strict top-down ranking.

In this selection method, every applicant is given all the assessments, such as tests, interviews, work samples, etc., and failing just one assessment will automatically remove an applicant from the possible list of hires. What is this selection method?

A. Passing Scores

B. Banding

C. Multiple Cut-Off

D. Multiple Hurdle

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C. Multiple Cut-Off

RATIONALIZATION: In a multiple-cutoff system, applicants must achieve a passing score on every assessment to be considered. Failing even one test results in disqualification, regardless of how well they scored on the others. The tests are often administered in a non-sequential bundle.

At the beginning of Squid Game, many contestants wanted to win. In every stage of the game, the number of contestants got smaller and smaller until only a few were left. If they were all vying for a job vacancy, what selection technique would Squid Game employ?

A. Passing Scores

B. Top-Down

C. Multiple Cut-Off

D. Multiple Hurdle

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D. Multiple Hurdle

RATIONALIZATION: A multiple-hurdle approach is a sequential process where applicants must pass one test (or "hurdle") before being allowed to move on to the next. This method is efficient for large applicant pools as it progressively narrows down the candidates at each stage.

Which of the following is least likely to be TRUE?

A. High performers evaluate their peers more strictly than low performers.

B. Employees tend to react worse to negative feedback from peers than from experts.

C. Peer ratings are fairly reliable only when the raters are similar to and well acquainted with the colleagues they are rating.

D. Peer ratings are the most common type of performance appraisals.

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D. Peer ratings are the most common type of performance appraisals.

RATIONALIZATION: While peer appraisals are used in some organizations, the most common and standard type of performance appraisal by far is the supervisor appraisal, where a manager evaluates their direct reports.

Which of the following is LEAST advisable as a source for performance evaluation data due to concerns about its validity?

A. Supervisor appraisals

B. Subordinate appraisals

C. Customer appraisals

D. Peer appraisals

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B. Subordinate appraisals

RATIONALIZATION: Subordinate appraisals (or "upward feedback") are often considered the most problematic source due to validity concerns. Subordinates may inflate ratings out of fear of retaliation or to curry favor with their boss, making the data unreliable for administrative decisions like raises or promotions.

This concept refers to when a rater fails to discriminate between two employees who are rated sequentially, wherein the first employee's rating affects the second's rating.

A. Assimilation error

B. Proximity error

C. Contrast error

D. Carryover effect

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D. Carryover effect

RATIONALIZATION: The carryover effect is a rater error where the evaluation of one employee influences the evaluation of the next employee in the sequence. For example, after rating an excellent employee, an average employee might seem worse than they actually are (this specific type is also called a contrast effect).

Although Bonnie observes that Caitlyn is not a good worker, she still rates her highly since the previous rater did the same. What error is being committed?

A. Halo Error

B. Leniency Error

C. Assimilation Error

D. Reference Error

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C. Assimilation Error

RATIONALIZATION: Assimilation error occurs when a rater's evaluation is influenced by previous ratings or information, rather than being based purely on their own observation of the employee's current performance. Bonnie is assimilating the previous rater's opinion into her own.

Patricia evaluates her serving girls and cooks based on their honesty in the restaurant. What kind of approach to performance appraisal is Patricia using?

A. Competency-focused

B. Trait-focused

C. Character-focused

D. Contextual-focused

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B. Trait-focused

RATIONALIZATION: A trait-focused appraisal system evaluates employees on personal characteristics or traits, such as honesty, dependability, or creativity. While easy to create, these systems are often criticized for being subjective and not directly linked to job behaviors.

How many pairs will be evaluated if a shop has seven employees using the paired comparisons method?

A. 28

B. 14

C. 21

D. 7

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C. 21

RATIONALIZATION: The formula to determine the number of comparisons in a paired comparison method is n(n-1)/2, where 'n' is the number of employees. For 7 employees, the calculation is 7(7-1)/2 = 7(6)/2 = 42/2 = 21 pairs.

If a garment factory is using the quality of work as the basis for performance appraisal of their employees, which of the following should they look into?

A. Punctuality of the employees.

B. Adherence to safety rules.

C. Number of garments they can produce in a given period.

D. Errors that they commit while working on garments.

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D. Errors that they commit while working on garments.

RATIONALIZATION: "Quality" of work refers to how well the work is done, as opposed to "quantity" (C), which is how much is done. The number of errors committed is a direct, objective measure of the quality of an employee's output.

This method of communicating appraisal results starts with telling employees what they have done poorly, then marketing ways to improve.

A. Feedback sandwich

B. Tell and Sell

C. Negative-positive

D. Collaborative

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B. Tell and Sell

RATIONALIZATION: The "Tell and Sell" approach to performance feedback involves the manager first telling the employee their evaluation and then trying to persuade or "sell" the employee on the validity of the feedback and the proposed improvement plan.

Companies are allowed to fire employees at any time. In what situation would this be invalid?

A. If the employee has no contract with the company.

B. If the company is in the private sector.

C. If an employee has refused to violate the ethics of his profession for the company.

D. If the employee is still in the probationary period.

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C. If an employee has refused to violate the ethics of his profession for thecompany.

RATIONALIZATION: This refers to the "public policy exception" to at-will employment. An employer cannot legally fire an employee for refusing to commit an illegal or unethical act, for exercising a statutory right, or for reporting illegal activity (whistleblowing).

Statement I. It is not illegal for companies to reduce their workforce when they are not doing well financially. Statement II. Employees who resign are still entitled to a separation pay.

A. Only I is TRUE

B. Only II is TRUE

C. Both are TRUE

D. Both are FALSE

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A. Only I is TRUE

RATIONALIZATION: Statement I is true; layoffs for economic reasons (retrenchment) are a legal and authorized cause for termination. Statement II is false; in general (especially under Philippine Labor Law), employees who voluntarily resign are not entitled to separation pay.

Which is the correct order when conducting a Training Needs Analysis?

A. Person Analysis, Organizational Analysis, Task Analysis

B. Person Analysis, Task Analysis, Organizational Analysis

C. Organizational Analysis, Task Analysis, Person Analysis

D. Task Analysis, Organizational Analysis, Person Analysis

.

C. Organizational Analysis, Task Analysis, Person Analysis

RATIONALIZATION: The process follows a logical funnel. First, an Organizational Analysis determines if and where training is needed within the company. Next, a Task Analysis identifies the specific tasks and competencies that need to be trained. Finally, a Person Analysis determines which specific employees need the training.

Before conducting training, you must determine whether there is a budget and whether the training period will interfere with other scheduled activities. Which phase of the Training Needs Analysis are these done?

A. Organizational Analysis

B. Task Analysis

C. Person Analysis

D. These are not part of a Training Needs Analysis

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A. Organizational Analysis

RATIONALIZATION: Organizational analysis is the first level of a needs analysis. It examines broad organizational goals, resources (like the training budget), and the overall environment to determine if training is a feasible and appropriate solution for the organization.

In determining what skills and knowledge employees need to train in, which of the following references is MOST relevant?

A. Job Analysis

B. Job Evaluations

C. Performance Evaluations

D. Annual Budget Reports

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A. Job Analysis

RATIONALIZATION: A job analysis provides a detailed breakdown of the tasks performed on a job and the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) required to perform them. This makes it the most relevant and direct source for identifying the content of a training program.

Reviewing seriously the night before a final examination is called?

A. Distributed practice

B. Aggregated practice

C. Massed practice

D. Bravery

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C. Massed practice

RATIONALIZATION: Massed practice refers to learning sessions that are long and condensed into a short period (i.e., cramming). This is in contrast to distributed practice, where learning is spread out over time, which is generally more effective for long-term retention.

First responders are trained in CPR using fake emergencies and dummies. This prepares them for actual events when CPR is needed. What training method is used?

A. Behavior Modeling

B. Role Play

C. Programmed Instruction

D. Simulation

.

D. Simulation

RATIONALIZATION: A simulation is a training method that replicates the essential features of a real-world situation in a safe and controlled environment. Using dummies and mock emergencies to practice CPR is a classic example of high-fidelity simulation.

During training, the manager shows the trainees how to deal with customer complaints, after which the trainees take turns doing the exercise. What training method is used?

A. Behavior Modeling

B. Role Play

C. Programmed Instruction

D. NOTA

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A. Behavior Modeling

RATIONALIZATION: Behavior modeling training involves four steps: 1) observing a model perform the correct behavior (social learning), 2) practicing the behavior (role-playing), 3) receiving feedback, and 4) applying the skill on the job. The scenario describes the first two steps.

A company wants to use an interactive e-learning training method. What method should they use?

A. Webinars

B. Webcasts

C. Simulations

D. Role Play

.

C. Simulations

RATIONALIZATION: While all options can be done via e-learning, simulations are inherently the most interactive. They require the learner to make decisions and respond to changing scenarios, providing a hands-on, engaging experience compared to more passive methods like webcasts.

This is commonly used to train non-managerial employees. It allows for lateral transfers within the company and effectively ensures that the tasks of absent employees are accomplished.

A. Apprentice Training

B. Backlog Training

C. Cross-Training

D. Coaching

.

C. Cross-Training

RATIONALIZATION: Cross-training involves teaching employees the skills and responsibilities of different jobs at the same level. This increases workforce flexibility, makes it easier to cover for absent employees, and provides a path for lateral career moves.

On-the-job Training methods heavily rely on which of the following learning theories?

A. Gestalt Theory by Wertheimer

B. Operant Conditioning by Skinner

C. Observational Learning by Bandura

D. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov

.

C. Observational Learning by Bandura

RATIONALIZATION: On-the-job training (OJT) often involves a trainee learning by watching an experienced employee model the correct behaviors. This process of learning through observation is the central tenet of Albert Bandura's Social (or Observational) Learning Theory.

Ilia is extremely dissatisfied with the afternoon's training session... He provides poor feedback during the post-training evaluation and comments on how the activity had no valuable application to his work.

A. Reaction criteria

B. Behavioral criteria

C. Learning criteria

D. Return on investment criteria

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A. Reaction criteria

RATIONALIZATION: This describes the first level of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation model. Reaction criteria measure how the trainees felt about the training program—their satisfaction and perceived usefulness. Ilia's poor feedback is a direct measure of his reaction.

Although extremely inconvenient for employees, Faraday Institute insists on a 4-day mandatory operational systems training program since their metrics show an annual 24 to 30% increase in revenue and consumer engagement after said program.

A. Reaction criteria

B. Behavioral criteria

C. Learning criteria

D. Return on investment criteria

.

D. Return on investment criteria

RATIONALIZATION: This describes the fourth and highest level of Kirkpatrick's model, which is Results. It can also be viewed as Return on Investment (ROI). This level of evaluation measures the training's impact on bottom-line organizational outcomes, such as revenue, profits, or consumer engagement.

Which of the following training would be considered the MOST effective?

A. Psychological First Aid training: mixed reactions from employees, a moderate increase in post-test scores, no return on investment.

B. DSM-V TR Workshop: poor feedback from trainees, successful post-training simulation, 24% increase in appraisal scores.

C. AI in Clinical Psychology: high satisfaction scores from employees, no post-test/simulation, 16% return of investment.

D. RA 29903 Orientation: no feedback survey, 15% increase in post-test scores, an average of 1 pt increase in appraisal scores.

E. All of the above are equally effective.

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B. DSM-V TR Workshop: poor feedback from trainees, successful post-training simulation, 24% increase in appraisal scores.

RATIONALIZATION: Training is most effective when it leads to behavioral change and positive organizational results. Option B, despite poor initial reactions, shows evidence of behavioral change (successful simulation) and tangible results (increased appraisal scores), which are higher levels of effectiveness than just satisfaction or learning alone.

Betty is discouraged because the director does not believe she can play Juliet. What would the effect be called if this causes her to perform poorly in her other projects?

A. Golem effect

B. Golum effect

C. Pygmalion effect

D. Galatea effect

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A. Golem effect

RATIONALIZATION: The Golem effect is a negative self-fulfilling prophecy where lower expectations placed upon an individual by a superior lead to that individual performing more poorly than they otherwise would have.

The producer, Rachel, expresses her confidence in Betty and says that she is perfect for the role of Juliet. Rachel continuously cheers her on throughout the play. What would the effect be called if this causes an increase in Betty's performance?

A. Golem effect

B. Self-fulfilling

C. Pygmalion effect

D. Galatea effect

.

C. Pygmalion effect

RATIONALIZATION: The Pygmalion effect is a positive self-fulfilling prophecy where higher expectations placed upon an individual by a superior result in that individual performing better. The producer's belief in Betty caused an increase in performance.

"Field officers are provided with company vehicles and gas allowances for their travels." What need in Maslow's hierarchy is being satisfied in this statement?

A. Physiological Need

B. Safety Need

C. Esteem Need

D. Love and Belongingness

.

B. Safety Need

RATIONALIZATION: In Maslow's hierarchy, Safety needs include personal security, financial security, and health and well-being. A company vehicle and gas allowance contribute to the employee's financial security and physical safety while performing their job.

"Bonuses are regularly awarded awards ceremonies are held regularly." What need in Maslow's hierarchy is being satisfied in this statement?

A. Physiological Need

B. Safety Need

C. Esteem Need

D. Love and Belongingness

.

C. Esteem Need

RATIONALIZATION: Esteem needs include the desire for respect, recognition, status, and appreciation from others. Bonuses and public awards ceremonies are direct ways for an organization to fulfill these higher-level needs.

For the employees who feel unsatisfied, which of the following needs, according to McClelland, are they likely to have?

A. High need for affiliation, low need for power

B. High need for power, low need for achievement

C. High need for achievement, high need for power

D. Low need for affiliation, high need for achievement

E. Low need for power, low need for affiliation

.

C. High need for achievement, high need for power

RATIONALIZATION: The employees feel their tasks are mundane (unmet Need for Achievement - nAch) and that they have no career mobility despite having leadership skills (unmet Need for Power - nPow). This indicates they likely have high nAch and high nPow that are being frustrated.

If the Two-Factor theory were applied, which of the following would describe the motivation of Greenview Management Employees?

A. High motivators

Low hygiene factors

B. Low motivators; High hygiene factors

C. High motivators; High hygiene factors

D. Low motivators, Low hygiene factors

.;B. Low motivators; High hygiene factors

RATIONALIZATION: According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, the company provides good "Hygiene factors" (pay, benefits, company car), which prevent dissatisfaction. However, they provide poor "Motivators" (lack of challenging work, no career advancement), which prevents true satisfaction and motivation.

Mandy's goal in life is to be an influential girl boss. She hates working for someone else and following orders. Instead, she wants to make decisions and have employees under her. What need is Mandy most likely high in?

A. Affiliation

B. Ambition

C. Achievement

D. Power

.

D. Power

RATIONALIZATION: According to McClelland's Theory of Needs, the Need for Power (nPow) is the desire to control or influence others, make an impact, and lead. Mandy's desire to make decisions and have employees clearly reflects a high need for power.

According to the Equity theory, people experiencing underpayment inequity will be least likely to?

A. Look for other people to compare themselves to.

B. Increase the effort and input that they put into their work.

C. Leave their company altogether.

D. Confront their superiors and ask for a pay raise.

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B. Increase the effort and input that they put into their work.

RATIONALIZATION: Equity Theory states that when employees perceive inequity (being underpaid for their input), they become motivated to restore balance. They might decrease their input, ask for more outcomes (a raise), or quit. They are least likely to increase their input, as this would only worsen the inequity.

"If I go to the moon, I will get promoted," Howard thinks. What component of Vroom's theory is manifested?

A. Expectancy

B. Instrumentality

C. Valence

D. Value

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B. Instrumentality

RATIONALIZATION: In Vroom's Expectancy Theory, Instrumentality is the perceived link between performance and outcome. It is the belief that if one performs well (goes to the moon), a valued outcome (promotion) will be received.

Ingrid is highly motivated to finish the project her boss had given her due to the highly prestigious award she could gain. According to the Expectancy Theory of motivation, her awareness of the presence of consequences is referred to as?

A. Expectancy

B. Instrumentality

C. Valence

D. Reinforcement

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C. Valence

RATIONALIZATION: In Vroom's Expectancy Theory, Valence is the value or attractiveness an individual places on a potential outcome or reward. The "highly prestigious award" is the valued outcome, and Ingrid's desire for it represents high valence.

Which of the following is FALSE?

A. People high in conscientiousness, extraversion, and openness and low in neuroticism are likelier to emerge as leaders.

B. More intelligent people are more likely to emerge as leaders than less intelligent people.

C. High self-monitors emerge as leaders more often than low self-monitors.

D. None of the above.

.

D. None of the above.

RATIONALIZATION: Research into leadership traits has found positive correlations between leadership emergence and the personality traits listed (A), intelligence (B), and high self-monitoring (C). Since statements A, B, and C are all generally supported by research, none of them are false.

Andrew knows that being a project manager will increase his standing in the company. Thus he volunteers for the position. What type of leadership motivation is he showing?

A. Non-calculative motivation

B. Calculative motivation

C. Affective Identity motivation

D. Social-normative motivation

.

B. Calculative motivation

RATIONALIZATION: Calculative motivation for leadership is driven by a rational analysis of the personal costs and benefits. Andrew is motivated by the personal gain of increased standing in the company, which is a calculative reason to lead.

In the movie 'A Star is Born', Allie is a capable singer and songwriter who is initially unwilling to perform with her fellow singer, Jack. Considering the Situational Leadership theory, how did Jack convince her to sing?

A. Through coaching

B. Through delegating

C. Through directing

D. Through supporting

.

D. Through supporting

RATIONALIZATION: In the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership model, an individual who is able but unwilling (like Allie) is at readiness level R3. The corresponding leadership style is S3-Supporting, which is low-task and high-relationship. The leader's role is to build confidence and encourage, which is what Jack did.

If team members are eager to work but do not know how to do the tasks, how would you lead them based on the situation?

A. Through coaching

B. Through delegating

C. Through directing

D. Through supporting

.

A. Through coaching

RATIONALIZATION: According to Situational Leadership theory, followers who are willing/eager but unable/unskilled are at readiness level R2. The appropriate leadership style is S2-Coaching (or Selling), which is high-task (provides direction) and high-relationship (explains decisions and offers encouragement) to develop their skills.

During the COVID pandemic... Country A wants to focus on understanding the virus and creating a vaccine. Meanwhile, Country B is focused on creating a strategy to mobilize its resources... Which of the following types of leaders would Country A and Country B need, respectively?

A. Magnetic Style, Coercive Style

B. Informational Style, Tactical Style

C. Tactical Style

Magnetic Style

D. Coercive Style; Informational Style

.;B. Informational Style, Tactical Style

RATIONALIZATION: Country A needs a leader who leads through knowledge and expertise, which is the Informational Style. Country B needs a leader who can plan, strategize, and execute complex plans, which is the Tactical Style.

Halfway through the basketball game, the Biik team loses to the Itik team by 10 points. Anderdaughter, the captain of Biik, tries his best to be optimistic and enthusiastic to cheer up his teammates. In this situation, what style of leadership is Anderdaughter using?

A. Magnetic Style

B. Coercive Style

C. Tactical Style

D. Informational Style

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A. Magnetic Style

RATIONALIZATION: The Magnetic Style of leadership (related to charismatic leadership) relies on the leader's energy, optimism, and force of personality to inspire and motivate others. Anderdaughter's enthusiastic efforts to cheer up his team perfectly exemplify this style.