Chapter Assignments- Exam 2

Match the following structures

composed of smooth muscle and cartilage

the first site of gas exchange

presence of mucociliary escalator and C-shaped cartilages

contains guard hair and mucus that traps particles

contains vocal cords

create turbulent airflow

double-layered membrane that covers lungs

bronchi

respiratory bronchiole

trachea

nose

larynx

nasal conchae

pleuarae

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? Check ALL that apply.

a. When pressure inside the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure, air will flow out of the lungs.

b. Expansion of the chest cavity also causes the lungs to expand.

c. The lungs are elastic and thus have a tendency to recoil inward.

d. Positive intrapleural pressure keeps the lungs inflated at rest.

e. Increasing the volume of the lungs increases the pressure inside the lungs.

A, B, C

During inspiration, air flows into the lungs because:

a. the bronchioles are dilated by an increase in PSNS activity.

b. the pressure inside the lungs is less than the atmospheric pressure.

c. the temperature inside the lungs is less than the atmospheric temperature.

 d. the volume of the lungs is decreased by muscle contraction.

B

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about compliance? Check ALL that apply.

a. Restrictive lung disorders are characterized by decreased compliance.

b. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance compared to normal patients.

c. Decreasing compliance makes inhalation easier.

d. Compliance is a measure of the stretchability of the lungs.

A, B, D

The most efficient way to increase alveolar ventilation is to increase: 

 

functional residual capacity

dead space

tidal volume

residual volume

breathing rate

tidal volume

Patients with restrictive respiratory disorders have decreased vital capacity but increased total lung capacity.

True

False

False

Pneumonia and pulmonary edema are examples of restrictive respiratory disorders.

True

False

True

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood is ________; whereas the partial pressure of oxygen in venous blood is ________.

a. 40 mmHg; 40 mmHg

b. 40 mmHg; 95 mmHg

c. 160 mmHg; 0.3 mmHg

d. 40 mmHg; 46 mmHg

e. 95 mmHg; 40 mmHg

A

Which of the following would increase the diffusion rate of gases between the alveoli and the blood? Check ALL that apply.

a. decreased surface area 

b. increased ventilation-perfusion coupling

c. increased thickness of respiratory membrane

d. increased partial pressure gradient

B and D

When there is poor airflow to an alveolus, which one of the following occurs to maximize gas exchange in that area? 

 

a. increased CO2 in the area causes vasodilation

b. decreased CO2 in the area causes bronchoconstriction

c. decreased O2 in the area causes bronchodilation

d. decreased O2 in the area causes vasoconstriction

D

Most of the oxygen in the blood is __________; and most carbon dioxide is transported as _______.

a. dissolved gas; bound to hemoglobin

b. dissolved gas; dissolved gas

c. bound to hemoglobin; bound to hemoglobin

d. bound to hemoglobin; bicarbonate

e. bound to hemoglobin; water

D

Decreasing the temperature will cause the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to shift to the __________. This means that oxygen is more easily _______
hemoglobin.

a. right; unloaded from

b. left; unloaded from

c. left; loaded onto

d. right; loaded onto

C

Carbon monoxide (CO) is so deadly because it:

a. prevents O2 from binding hemoglobin.

b. causes severe bronchoconstriction.

c. causes severe respiratory acidosis.

d. prevents CO2 from binding hemoglobin.

e. decreases the diffusion rate of O2 into the alveoli.

f. increases surface tension inside the alveoli causing them to collapse.

A

The fact that hemoglobin will unload more O2 when acidity increases is called:

a. the Bohr effect

b. Dalton's Law

c. Henry's Law

d. Boyle's Law

e. the Haldane effect

A

When carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease, this causes _________, so the body __________ to correct the problem. 

a. alkalosis; hyperventilates

b. alkalosis; hypoventilates

c. nothing bad to happen; does nothing

d. acidosis; hyperventilates

e. acidosis; hypoventilates

B

When hyperventilating which of the following is/are TRUE? Check ALL that apply.

a. respiratory alkalosis will occur

b. blood H+ will increase

c. the body will try to compensate by breathing more slowly

d. peripheral and central chemoreceptors will fire faster

e. more O2 will be unloaded from hemoglobin

A and C

In metabolic acidosis, central chemoreceptor firing rate will increase to cause the ventilation rate to increase.

True

False

False

Which of the following puts the tissues in order from the lumen of the GI tract outward?

a. epithelium, circular smooth muscle, submucosa, longitudinal smooth muscle, myenteric nerve plexus, serosa

b. serosa, smooth muscle, myenteric nerve plexus, circular smooth muscle, submucosa, epithelium

c. epithelium, submucosa, circular smooth muscle, myenteric nerve plexus, longitudinal smooth muscle, serosa

d. submucosa, myenteric nerve plexus, circular smooth muscle, longitudinal smooth muscle, serosa, epithelium

C

During digestion, carbohydrates are broken down into _________, whereas proteins are broken down into _________.

 

a. monoglycerides and fatty acids; amino acids

b. amino acids; nucleic acids

c. monosaccharides; amino acids

d. monosaccharides; nucleic acids

e. nucleic acids; monoglycerides and fatty acids

C

Which one of the following helps prevent acid reflux? 

a. lower esophageal sphincter

b. pyloric sphincter

c. gastric rugae

d. upper esophageal sphincter

A

Increased SNS activity to the stomach will __________ peristalsis and ___________ gastric secretions.

a. increase; decrease

b. decrease; decrease

c. increase; increase

d. decrease; increase

B

Chief cells secrete gastrin.

 True

False

False

Parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor. 

True

False

True

The release of hydrochloric acid (HCl) is stimulated by: Check ALL that apply   

 

a. intrinsic factor

b. CCK

c. PSNS

d. SNS

e. gastrin 

f. bile 

g. pepsin

h. histamine

C, E, H

In general, how does neural and hormonal input impact the smooth muscle of the GI tract?

a. increases the rate of the pacemaker activity of the muscles.

b. starts the pacemaker activity of the circular and longitudinal muscle.

c. increases the force of muscle contraction.

d. increases both the rate and force of muscle contraction.

C

The vagus nerve innervates the stomach.

True

False

True

Having food in the stomach causes histamine to be released.

True

False

True

The enterogastric reflex increases gastric secretions in response to the sight, smell, or thought of food. 

True

False

False

Stretching of the duodenum increases PSNS activity to the stomach.

True 

False

False

Chemical digestion of fats occurs in the: Check ALL that apply.

a. stomach

b. large intestine

c. small intestine

d. mouth

A and C

Which of the following organs contribute to mechanical digestion? Check ALL that apply.

a. liver

b. teeth

c. pancreas

d. stomach

e. small intestine

B, D

Which of the following statements about fat digestion and absorption is/are TRUE? Check ALL that apply.

a. Fats are digested to monoglycerides and fatty acids by pancreatic enzymes in the small intestine.

b. Lipids are resynthesized into large triglycerides inside intestinal cells before they are transported away from the small intestine.

c. Bile decreases the surface area of fat in the small intestine to slow the rate of digestion by enzymes.

d. Lactase, sucrase, and maltase are all enzymes that digest fats.

e. After absorption into intestinal cells, lipids are repackaged into chylomicrons and shuttled into the lymphatic system.

A, B, E

Match each of the following types of motility with where they occur. Note: You may use each answer more than once.

receptive relaxation

haustration (haustral contractions)

mastication

mass movements

migrating motor complex

stomach

large intestine

mouth

large intestine

small intestine

Which of one of the following is TRUE about the defecation reflex 

a. Increased SNS activity stimulates the rectum to contract.

b. Feces can pass from the body after relaxation of the internal anal sphincter.

c. The defecation reflex is stimulated by stretch of the descending colon.

d. Voluntary control of defecation keeps the rectum relaxed until you are ready to pass the feces.

C

Which nutrient provides more than twice as much energy per gram compared to other nutrients?

a. nucleic acids

b. vitamins

c. carbohydrates

d. lipids

e. proteins

D

Which of the following is/are considered to be micronutrients? Check ALL that apply.

a. water

b. proteins

c. minerals

d. carbohydrates

e. lipids

f. vitamins

C and F

LDLs have a higher lipid to protein ratio than HDLs.

True

False

True

Which organ regulates carbohydrate metabolism via glycogenolysis, glycogenesis, and gluconeogenesis?

a. liver

b. kidney

c. brain

d. small intestine

e. pancreas

A

Gluconeogenesis is the process by which _____________.

a. glycogen is synthesized

b. glucose is broken down to produce ATP

c. glycogen is broken down to glucose

d. glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate molecules

D

Match the following circumstances with the appropriate metabolic state.

Occurs during and immediately after a meal

Regulated by insulin

Stored nutrients are used for fuel

Gluconeogenesis occurs

Glycogenesis occurs

Glycogenolysis occurs

absorptive

absorptive

postabsorptive
postabsorptive

absorptive

postabsorptive

Which of the following is regulated by the kidneys? Check ALL that apply.

a. RBC production

b. pH of blood

c. excretion of metabolic wastes

d. oxygen dissolved in blood

e. blood pressure

f. plasma osmolarity

g.excretion of cholesterol

h. plasma glucose concentration

i. blood volume

A,B, C,E,F,I

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate type of nephron.

most nephrons are this type of nephron

have a relatively long nephron loop

create osmolarity gradient inside renal medulla

associated with vasa recta capillaries

located mostly inside the renal cortex

cortical

juxtamedullary

juxtamedullary

juxtamedullary

cortical

Which one of the following puts the structures of the nephron/urinary system in the correct order as a molecule of water flows thru the kidney and out as part of the urine?

a. glomerulus, nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule, major calyx, minor calyx, urinary bladder, distal convoluted tubule

b. proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, renal pelvis, distal convoluted tubule, glomerular capsule, urethra, urinary bladder

c. glomerular capsule, collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, minor calyx, renal pelvis, urethra, urinary bladder

d. afferent arteriole, glomerular capsule, nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule, renal pelvis, ureter, urethra

D

Tubular reabsorption describes the movement of substances from the _____ into the ______.

a. glomerular capillaries; nephron tubules

b. peritubular capillaries; nephron tubules

c. nephron tubules; peritubular capillaries

d. nephron tubules; glomerular capillaries

C

Which of the following substances can be reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries? Check ALL that apply.

a. K+

b. glucose

c. H+

d. amino acids

e. water

A,B, D,E

Which of the following substances can be filtered into the nephron tubule? Check ALL that apply.

a. glucose

b. red blood cells

c. Na+

d. urea

e. amino acids

f. plasma proteins

A, C, D, E

What is the net filtration pressure inside the renal corpuscle if glomerular capillary blood pressure = 75 mmHg, capsular fluid pressure = 25 mmHg, colloid osmotic pressure of the blood = 23 mmHg 

a. 77 mmHg

b. 123 mmHg

c. 50 mmHg

d. 27 mmHg

e. 73 mmHg

D

Which of the following will lead to an increased GFR? Check ALL that apply.

a. constricting the efferent arteriole

b. dilating the afferent arteriole

c. increased angiotensin II

d. activation of the SNS

e. constricting the afferent arteriole

f. increased ANP

A. B,F

Tubuloglomerular feedback involves communication between which two parts of the nephron? Select two of the following.

 

a. collecting duct

b. afferent arteriole

c. efferent arteriole

d. distal convoluted tubule

e. proximal convoluted tubule

f. nephron loop

B, D

Which of the following are direct effects of angiotensin II? Check ALL that apply.

 

a. increased ANP secretion

b. increased water reabsorption in the collecting duct 

c. constriction of afferent arteriole 

d. increased aldosterone secretion

e.decreased absorption of Na+ in the distal nephron tubule

B, C,D

Over the long-term, how will each of the following affect blood volume/blood pressure?

ANP

aldosterone

vasodilation of the afferent arteriole

increased SNS activity

increased water reabsorption in the CD

decreased Na+ reabsorption in the DCT

decrease

increase

decrease

increase

increase

decrease

The countercurrent multiplier is:

a. the mechanism by which the distal convoluted tubule is able to sense increased fluid flow and cause constriction of the afferent arteriole 

b. a cascade of effects caused by the secretion of renin and the production of angiotensin II.

c. used to create an osmolarity gradient inside the renal medulla.

d. used to absorb the majority of water and solutes in the proximal convoluted tubule.

C

If a substance is reabsorbed by the nephron, then its renal clearance will be less than the GFR.

True

False

True

The renal clearance of inulin can be used to measure GFR because inulin is:

a. filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed 

b. reabsorbed but not secreted. 

c. filtered but not secreted or reabsorbed.

d. secreted but not filtered.

C

Even if the micturition reflex has been initiated, the brain keeps the external urethral sphincter contracted until a person is ready to urinate.

True

False

True

The internal urethral sphincter is under voluntary (somatic motor) control.

True

False

False

The penis is a primary sex organ in males.

True

False

False

Which of the following are mechanisms used by the body to cool the testes? Check ALL that apply.

a. increased secretion of bulbourethral fluid

b. contraction of the cremaster

c. relaxation of dartos fascia

d. countercurrent heat exchange

e. inhibition of spermatogenesis

B,C,D

Which one of the following puts the structures of the male reproductive system in order as sperm travel from the testes out the body?

a. ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, efferent ductules, rete testis, urethra 

b. seminiferous tubules, rete testis, efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

c.seminiferous tubules, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, rete testis, efferent ductules, urethra

d. epididymis, efferent ductules, rete testis, ductus deferens, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct, urethra

B

Nurse cells do which of the following? Check ALL that apply.

a. provide nutrients and growth factors to developing sperm

b. secrete prostaglandins as a component of semen

c. produce nitric oxide during the sexual response

d. form blood-testes barrier

e. produce testosterone

A and D

In spermatogenesis, before meiosis I occurs, the __________ must first move inside the blood-testes barrier. At the end of meiosis II a total of 4 ________ sperm are produced.

 

a. spermatids; diploid

b. secondary spermatocytes; haploid

c. spermatogonia; haploid

d. primary spermatocytes; haploid

e. spermatogonia; diploid

f. primary spermatocytes; diploid

D

Match the following descriptions with the appropriate structure. Note: you may not use all of the answer choices.

produces a fluid that lubricates the head of the penis during the male sexual response

have cilia to propel sperm along

contains enzymes needed for fertilization

cancer in this gland is the second most common type of cancer in males

is the third (last) gland to contract during the male sexual response

has many sinuses that fill with blood during the male sexual response

bulbourethral gland

efferent ductules

acrosome

prostate

seminal vesicle

erectile tissue

Which one of the following is a sticky substance that keeps semen inside the vagina?

a. seminogelin

b. prostaglandins

c. citrate

d. fructose 

e. serine protease

A

Which one of the following substances in semen thins vaginal mucus and stimulate uterine contractions so that the sperm can more easily move around inside the female?

a. clotting enzyme

b. prostaglandins

c. proseminogelin 

d. citrate

e. fructose

B

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? Check ALL that apply.

a. If LH secretion increases, GnRH levels will decrease.

b. If FSH secretion increases, testosterone levels won’t change.

c. If testosterone secretion increases, LH levels will decrease.

d. If sperm production increases, testosterone levels will decrease.

e. If inhibin secretion increases, LH levels will decrease.

f. If sperm production increases, inhibin levels will increase.

A, B, C, F

The endometrium is a layer of:

a. cells inside the vagina that produces acid to inhibit bacterial growth 

b. tissue inside the uterus that is shed each month during the menstrual cycle

c. cells that surrounds and protects the developing oocyte inside the ovary

d. muscle inside the uterus that produces the contractions of child birth

B

The labia majora develop from the same tissue as the ______ in males.

a. penis

b. scrotum

c. testes

d. ejaculatory duct

e. ductus deferens

B

Mammary glands develop during puberty.

True

False

False

The areola contains lots of vessels and nerves to enhance sensitivity in that area. 

True

False

True

In oogenesis, the first meiotic division is completed _______, and the second meiotic division is completed _________.

a. at puberty; just before ovulation 

b. before birth; just before ovulation

c. before birth; at puberty

d. just before ovulation; after fertilization

e. just after ovulation; after fertilization

f. before birth; just after ovulation

D

In the developing follicle, _______ cells produce androgens like testosterone that get converted to estrogen by _______ cells.

a.antral; luteal

b. theca; granulosa

c. myometrial; endometrial

d. endometrial; myometrial 

e. granulosa; theca

B

Match the following events with the appropriate phase of the ovarian or uterine cycle. Note: you will use each answer only once.

Estrogen from growing follicles causes the endometrium to grow

Endometrium begins to degenerate

FSH stimulates several follicles to grow

Progesterone from the corpus luteum stimulates the endometrium to secrete glycogen

Days 1-5 of the uterine cycle

Days 15-28 of the ovarian cycle

proliferative phase

premenstrual phase

follicular phase

secretory phase

menstrual phase

luteal phase

The LH surge causes which of the following? Check ALL that apply.

a. transformation of the empty follicle into the corpus luteum

b. degeneration of the endometrium

c. ovulation

d. conversion of the primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte

e. development of mammary glands

f. one dominant follicle to develop in the ovary

g. completion of meiosis II

A, C, D

Following menopause, blood tests would show ______ estrogen and ______ FSH compared to premenopausal levels.

a. increased; increased

b. decreased; decreased

c. decreased; increased

d. increased; decreased

C

Match the following effects (functions) with the  appropriate hormone.

Stimulates body growth

Supports development of reproductive organs

Prepares uterus for pregnancy

Promotes growth of pubic and axillary hair

Prevents ovulation and menstruation

estrogen

estrogen

progesterone

estrogen

progesterone