Infection Control and Safety - Flashcards

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66 Terms

1
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A phlebotomist must follow transmission based precaution for which of the following patients?

A. patient with fever of unknown origin

B. patient who has rubeola

C. patient who has rheumatic fever

D. patient with pneumonia

B. patient who has rubeola

  • Airborne precautions must be followed for patients with Rubeola (measles) virus exhibiting maculopapular rash with cough, nasal mucosa secretions, and fever.

2
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 If a patient has measles, which of the following is a required additional precaution?

A. hand hygiene

B. N95 respirator

C. gloves

D. eye protection

B. N95 respirator

  • Airborne precautions are advised for patients with tuberculosis, measles, chickenpox and herpes zoster (until lesions are crusted over) and use of an N95 respirator is recommended as an additional precaution to standard precautions.

3
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In addition to usual PPE what would you add or replace before entering a patient's room with air borne precautions.

A. Surgical mask

B. N95 respirator

C. Mask with face shield

D. Full face/head mask

B. N95 respirator

  • The N95 respirator is the most common of the seven types of particulate filtering respirators, as it filters 95% or more of all airborne particles.

4
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Which of the following disease states would require the use of a mask by the patient during transportation?

A. HIV and Varicella

B. Tuberculosis and Varicella

C. Hepatitis and Tuberculosis

D. Staphylococcal Infection and Hepatitis

B. Tuberculosis and Varicella

  • A person transporting a patient would have the patient use a mask if the patient had an airborne illness such as Tuberculosis or Varicella.

5
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A phlebotomist has received a requisition to collect a blood specimen on a patient infected with diphtheria.  The phlebotomist must be sure to follow what precautions?

A. standard precautions and airborne precautions

B. droplet precautions and contact precautions.

C. standard, airborne, droplet and contact precautions.

D. droplet precautions and airborne precautions.

C. standard, airborne, droplet and contact precautions.

  • Diphtheria is an acute, toxin-mediated disease caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Transmission is most often person-to-person from the respiratory tract, but transmission may occur from skin lesions or fomites in touch with discharges from the skin. Thus, both standard and contact precautions are indicated, in addition to airborne and droplet.

6
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A phlebotomist has been asked to collect a specimen from a patient with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).  Which of the following transmission-based precautions should be used?

A. contact and droplet precautions

B. complete isolation precautions

C. airborne precautions

D. reverse isolation precautions

A. contact and droplet precautions

  • There are 3 transmission-based precautions: droplet, airborne, and contact. Contact precautions should be followed in addition to standard precautions when a patient could transmit their pathogen by direct contact or skin-to-skin. RSV is a virus that can be transmitted by contact.

7
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When arriving at a patient’s room for a timed blood draw, a phlebotomist observes an airborne precautions sign on the patient’s door.  How should the phlebotomist proceed?

A. Enter patient’s room, and proceed with procedure, as it is time sensitive

B. Apply PPE, sterile cloth mask, and proceed with procedure

C. Apply N95, and proceed with procedure

D. Apply PPE and N95, and proceed with procedure

D. Apply PPE and N95, and proceed with procedure

  • Use of PPE is a requirement at all times. Airborne precautions are necessary when Contact, Standard, and Universal Precautions alone are not sufficient to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that might be carried in the air.

8
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Which of the following measures is applicable when treating patients diagnosed with tuberculosis?

A. Contact Precautions

B. Standard Precautions

C. Universal Precautions

D. Airborne Precautions

D. Airborne Precautions

  • Tuberculosis (TB) is a worldwide health problem caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a type of bacteria. Patients with pulmonary or laryngeal TB may transmit the disease through airborne particles call “droplet nuclei” when they cough or sneeze (as examples) so airborne precautions are important.

9
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Which of the following is the most common means of transmission of Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)?

A. direct contact with the skin of infected persons

B. direct contact with contaminated blood  

C. inhaling contaminated respiratory droplets of infected persons 

D. direct contact with contaminated feces

A. direct contact with the skin of infected persons

  • Because SA can be on the surface of the skin, the most common way MRSA spreads from person to person is by direct contact.

10
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The medical assistant should place which of the following patients arriving to the medical office screening area in immediate isolation?

A. A patient with a known history of Methicillin-Resistant Staph Aureus (MRSA) presenting with a new wound.

B. A patient with a known history of Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) of the GI tract.

C. A patient being seen for a fever and a rash who has never had chicken pox.

D. A patient reporting a high fever, stiff neck, blurry vision, and petechial rash.

D. A patient reporting a high fever, stiff neck, blurry vision, and petechial rash.

  • If bacterial meningitis is suspected, the patient requires immediate isolation to prevent exposure and spread of infection.

11
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Which of the following personal protective equipment must be used when working with a patient suspected of having pertussis?

A. surgical mask

B. fluid resistant gown

C. N95 respirator

D. sterile gloves

A. surgical mask

  • Pertussis is spread when an infectious patient coughs or sneezes, producing air droplet spread. The spread of infection typically requires very close contact for an extended period of time

12
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When a phlebotomist enters an airborne isolation room, the appropriate PPE would be

A. gloves, N95 respirator

B. gown, gloves, N95 respirator

C. gown, gloves, mask

D. gown, mask

B. gown, gloves, N95 respirator

  • Appropriate PPE for airborne isolation is gloves, gown, and an N95 respirator.

13
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Which of the diseases listed below require contact precautions?

A. Rubella, mumps, and pertussis

B. Parovirus B19, streptococcal, and mycoplasma

C. Neisseria meningitis, sepsis, and epiglottitis

D. Clostridium difficile, escherichia coli, and pediculosis

D. Clostridium difficile, escherichia coli, and pediculosis

  • Clostridium difficile (a.k.a. C. diff), escherichia coli (a.k.a. E. coli), and pediculosis (a.k.a. Lice) all can be contracted from a patient through contact.

14
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Which of the following is the minimum PPE requirement when drawing ordered lab work on a patient with suspected HIV?

A. gown, gloves, and mask

B. gloves only

C. mask only

D. gloves and mask only

B. gloves only

  • To prevent viral exposure and transmission, gloves are required when drawing lab work on a patient with suspected HIV. HIV can be spread through blood, so it is important that gloves be worn at all times when drawing lab work. Gowns and masks do not need to be worn when drawing lab work, because HIV cannot be spread through ordinary contact.

15
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As the medical assistant, you are assisting the primary provider with suture placement.  What is the most important personal protective equipment you are going to gather for yourself and the provider?

A. Sterile Gloves

B. Face Mask

C. Body Gown

D. Shoe covers

A. Sterile Gloves

  • Suture placement is a relatively low risk procedure. The main personal protective equipment required for all medical personnel are sterile gloves.

16
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The medical assistant has received a requisition to collect a blood specimen on a patient infected with multidrug-resistant TB.  When leaving the patient’s room the medical assistant should be sure to

A. Remove her gloves, then the gown, then the mask.

B. Remove her gown, then the mask, then the gloves.

C. Remove her mask, then the gloves, then the gown.

D. Remove her mask, then the gown, then the gloves.

A. Remove her gloves, then the gown, then the mask.

  • To reduce the risk of contaminating oneself with infectious agents, the order of personal protective equipment is important. The correct order of PPE removal is gloves, gown, and mask.

17
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When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, the wheelchair should be positioned so that the

A. strong side of the patient is closest to the medical assistant.

B. weak side of the patient is closest to the medical assistant.

C. patient's feet are positioned in front of the medical assistant.

D. back of the wheelchair is positioned in front of the medical assistant.

A. strong side of the patient is closest to the medical assistant.

  • it is important to position the wheelchair with the patient’s weak side next to the table and the strong side closest to the person assisting the patient

18
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While processing a large volume of bloody body fluid, a medical assistant is startled and knocks the sample off the counter.  The glass container breaks on the floor.  What steps should the phlebotomist take to disinfect the spill area? (Put choices in order.)

 

  1. Decontaminate the area with a dilution of sodium hypochlorite and allow to air dry.

  2. Remove glass without contact with hands.

  3. Wear gloves, gown, and facial protection.

  4. Absorb the spill and remove all visible material.

  5. Dispose of all materials in biohazard container.

1.) Wear gloves, gown, and facial protection.

2.) Remove glass without contact with hands.

3.) Absorb the spill and remove all visible material.

4.) Dispose of all materials in biohazard container.

5.) Decontaminate the area with a dilution of sodium hypochlorite and allow to air dry.

19
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A patient notices the symbol above on the door and asks what it means.  The medical assistant should tell the patient the symbol means

A. isolation precautions required.

B. radiation in use.

C. emergency eye wash station.

D. biohazard material present.  

D. biohazard material present.  

<p>D.&nbsp;<span><strong><span>biohazard material present. &nbsp;</span></strong></span></p>
20
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Which of the following chemicals is most commonly used to disinfect work surfaces?

A. benzalkonium chloride

B. chlorhexidine gluconate

C. isopropanol

D. sodium hypochlorite

D. sodium hypochlorite

21
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The medical assistant is preparing to use a new chemical in the office with the label pictured here. The medical assistant should know that the chemical

A. is a health hazard.

B. may be stored next to an oxidizer.

C. is a corrosive.

D. is not flammable.

A. is a health hazard.

<p>A. <span><span>is a health hazard.</span></span></p>
22
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The medical assistant finds an unconscious patient in the office building hallway and determines CPR needs to be initiated. Which of the following allows the medical assistant to begin CPR?

A. informed consent

B. implied consent

C. the Good Samaritan Law

D. expressed contract

C. the Good Samaritan Law

23
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The patient experiencing dyspnea is placed on oxygen via nasal cannula.  The medical assistant should document the flow rate as

A. liters per minute.

B. volume per minute.

C. degrees per minute.

D. percentage per minute.

A. liters per minute.

24
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The medical term meaning immediately is

A. ad lib.

B. p.r.n.

C. stat.

D. a.s.a.p.

C. stat.

25
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The older adult patient who is observed talking in the clinic waiting area begins to choke on a piece of hard candy and cannot speak. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take immediately?

A. begin chest compressions

B. perform abdominal thrusts

C. obtain the AED

D. measure a full set of baseline vitals  

B. perform abdominal thrusts

26
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Which of the following treatments are appropriate when initiating first aid to the patient with a second-degree burn? [Select 2]

A. Apply moisturizing cream to the affected area.

B. Soak the affected area in Epsom salt.

C. Run cool water over affected area of intact skin.

D. Protect the burn from pressure or injury.

E. Drain large, intact blisters.

C. Run cool water over affected area of intact skin. D. Protect the burn from pressure or injury.

27
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The MA is caring for the patient in the clinic diagnosed with a right ankle sprain that occurred during a gymnastics meet approximately three hours ago.  Which of the following treatments are appropriate? [Select 4]

A. protect and rest the affected ankle

B. apply an ice pack to the ankle

C. wrap the affected ankle with a compression bandage

D. apply a warm moist pack to the ankle

E. elevate the ankle at or above heart level

A. protect and rest the affected ankle, B. apply an ice pack to the ankle, C. wrap the affected ankle with a compression bandage, E. elevate the ankle at or above heart level

28
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A pediatric patient presents to the clinic with a barking cough and high-pitched breathing.  These signs indicate to the medical assistant that which of the following anatomical structures is obstructed?

A. larynx

B. bronchial tree

C. soft palate

D. trachea

A. larynx

29
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After receiving the MMR vaccine, a 12-month old begins coughing, wheezing, and breathing appears labored.  The patient is most likely experiencing

A. a localized allergic reaction to the vaccine.  

B. an apneic episode.

C. a systemic allergic reaction to the vaccine.  

D. seasonal influenza.

C. a systemic allergic reaction to the vaccine. 

30
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The patient experiencing a nose bleed presents to the reception area in the medical office.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

A. Place an ice pack on the patient’s forehead to constrict blood vessels.

B. Apply direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes.

C. Flush the affected nostril with saline solution.

D. Instruct the patient to sit with the head tilted back to prevent aspiration.

B. Apply direct pressure to the affected nostril for 10-15 minutes.

31
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Providing high-quality chest compressions while performing CPR

A. prevents aspiration of gastric contents.  

B. maintains alignment to open the airway.    

C. eliminates the need for an AED.         

D. pumps blood from the heart.    

D. pumps blood from the heart.    

32
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A pediatric patient with no known seizure history presents to the physician’s office with a high fever. While sitting in the waiting room, the child goes unconscious and begins to experience tonic/clonic movements that do not stop after several minutes.  Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

A. Provide a cool wash cloth to the parent to help bring down the fever.

B. Place a tongue blade inside the child’s mouth to prevent the tongue from occluding the throat.

C. Ensure immediate patient and environment safety and activate EMS.

D. Obtain a full set of vital signs while holding the patient down.

C. Ensure immediate patient and environment safety and activate EMS.

33
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After checking an unconscious patient's vitals, the adult patient has a heart rate of 75 BPM and no signs of breathing. Which of the following is the correct course of action?

A. Begin chest compressions.

B. Perform defibrillation at 20 joules.

C. Perform abdominal thrusts.

D. Perform rescue breathing.

D. Perform rescue breathing.

34
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The patient exhibits signs of anaphylaxis following an allergy injection in the medical office.  The medical assistant should anticipate administration of

A. epinephrine.

B. diazapam.

C. insulin.

D. dextrose.

A. epinephrine.

  • Anaphylaxis is a potentially fatal systemic (whole body) allergic reaction that can cause a multitude of symptoms, including shock, anxiety, sudden hypotension, narrowing airways, nausea, vomiting, itching and hives. Treatment for anaphylaxis involves an epinephrine injection, which can immediately reverse the life-threatening symptoms.

35
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A pediatric patient with a recent history of chicken pox presents to the clinic with Reye's Syndrome.  When reviewing the patient’s chart, which of the following is the most likely contributor to the Reye’s Syndrome?

A. calamine lotion

B. varicella immunization

C. acetaminophen

D. aspirin

D. aspirin

36
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What does a Dermatologist specialize in?

A. Heart Disorders

B. Malfunctions of glands and hormones

C. Altered immunologic reactivity

D. Skin Disorders

D. Skin Disorders

37
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_______means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skin such as needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes and exposed ends of dental wires.

A. Contaminated Devices

B. Disposable Devices

C. Contaminated Sharps

D. Dangerous Incisor

C. Contaminated Sharps

38
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Which of the following should be stored in a refrigerator labeled with a biohazard sticker?

A. glucometer control solution

B. unused viral media tubes  

C. xylocaine (Lidocaine HCl) 2% Jelly

D. prepared plasma specimens

D. prepared plasma specimens

39
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A medical assistant has active symptoms of the common cold. Under which of the following conditions may he perform venipuncture?

A. The medical assistant may not perform venipuncture with an active cold.

B. The medical assistant may perform venipuncture provided the patient is wearing a mask.

C. The medical assistant may perform venipuncture provided he is wearing a mask and afebrile.

D. The medical assistant may perform routine venipuncture as usual

C. The medical assistant may perform venipuncture provided he is wearing a mask and afebrile.

40
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Which of the following is a common allergic reaction to a latex product?

A. vertigo

B. hemorrhage

C. syncope

D. urticaria

D. urticaria

41
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Which of the following would be considered a nosocomial infection?

A. an elderly man in the ER with flu-like symptoms

B. an 8-year old boy that develops chicken pox 2 days after admission

C. a female patient who develops a UTI after having a urinary catheter

D. a healthcare worker that develops Hepatitis C

C. a female patient who develops a UTI after having a urinary catheter

42
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During a phlebotomy collection, the needle came out of the patient’s arm and the phlebotomist’s gloves became grossly bloody.  Which of the following statements correctly describes the disposal of the waste?

A. Dispose of the contaminated gloves in a biohazard bag; then dispose of the sharps in puncture-proof biohazard sharps container.

B. Dispose of the contaminated gloves in the trashcan; then dispose of the sharps in puncture-proof biohazard sharps container.

C. Dispose of the sharps in puncture-proof biohazard sharps container, then dispose of the contaminated gloves in a biohazard bag.

D. Dispose of the sharps in puncture-proof biohazard sharps container, then dispose of the contaminated gloves in the trashcan.

C. Dispose of the sharps in puncture-proof biohazard sharps container, then dispose of the contaminated gloves in a biohazard bag.

43
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Which of the following diseases is a bloodborne pathogen?

A. tuberculosis

B. hepatitis C

C. varicella

D. influenza

B. hepatitis C

44
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The first course of action a phlebotomist should follow immediately after a needle stick is

A. report the incident to the immediate supervisor.

B. wash the site with a disinfectant for a minimum of 30 seconds.

C. wash the site with soap and water for a minimum of 30 seconds.

D. report directly to a licensed healthcare provider for treatment.

C. wash the site with soap and water for a minimum of 30 seconds.

45
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Which of the following actions by the medical assistant is the first line of defense in preventing the spread of microorganisms?

A. wear non-sterile gloves when performing venipuncture

B. perform regular hand hygiene

C. wear sterile gloves when changing a dressing

D. use aseptic technique when drawing up a medication

B. perform regular hand hygiene

46
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The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act exists to protect healthcare workers from accidental exposure to

A. carcinogens.

B. blood borne pathogens.

C. hazardous chemicals.

D. biologic toxins.

B. blood borne pathogens.

47
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Which of the following requires the highest level of disinfection in order to be destroyed?

A. organism that causes influenza

B. organism that causes giardiasis

C. organism that causes tetanus

D. organism that causes rotavirus 

C. organism that causes tetanus

48
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The final step the ECG technician should take with a patient on contact precautions is to

A. wash hands.

B. remove gloves.

C. avoid contaminated surfaces.

D. disinfect all equipment.

D. disinfect all equipment.

49
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Sterilized instruments should be stored

A. for a maximum of 90 days.

B. with the tape side down to avoid susceptibility to contamination.

C. for a maximum of 10 days.

D. in a temperature controlled environment to prevent moisture accumulation.

D. in a temperature controlled environment to prevent moisture accumulation.

50
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How should the medical assistant store an instrument with a ratchet when it is not in use?

A. unlocked (open) position

B. locked (closed) position

C. bundled with similar instruments

D. in 10% formalin solution

A. unlocked (open) position

  • A ratchet is a step-locking instrument. It is important to store such a device open and unlocked to prolong proper functioning and smooth operation. Dry storage is appropriate, as it is not necessary to store in formalin or bundled.

51
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Which of the following actions by the medical assistant demonstrates the correct use of surgical asepsis?

A. closing the door to an exam room if a sterile field must be left unattended

B. opening sterile items with scrubbed hands

C. pouring liquids onto the sterile field from at least 20 inches above the field    

D. replacing sterile items that may have become contaminated

D. replacing sterile items that may have become contaminated

52
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Which of the following items requires autoclave processing?

A. cautery pen 

B. nylon sutures

C. synthetic sutures

D. transfer forceps

D. transfer forceps

  • Transfer forceps are made of surgical stainless steel which are autoclave safe. Cautery pens, nylon sutures and synthetic sutures should not be processed via autoclave.

53
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During a minor surgical procedure, which of the following equipment is required to maintain surgical asepsis if something needs to be added to a sterile surgical tray?

A. transfer forceps

B. Rochester forceps

C. mosquito hemostat        

D. sponge forceps

A. transfer forceps

  • Surgical asepsis requires that all tools be completely sterile, free of microorganisms and spores. Transfer forceps are used to maintain surgical asepsis in instances when something needs to be transferred into the sterile field or onto a sterile tray. They are unwrapped, used one time, and then require sterilization before the next use. Rochester forceps, mosquito hemostats, and sponge forceps also require surgical asepsis if they are to be used during a procedure.

54
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Keeping contaminated equipment and supplies away from the medical assistant’s clothing to prevent pathogen transmission to the next patient is an example of which of the following?

A. medical asepsis 

B. surgical asepsis

C. sanitization

D. disinfection

A. medical asepsis 

  • Medical asepsis is the prevention of direct effect of cross contamination from ourselves to another patient. Medical asepsis is the destruction of disease causing pathogens.

55
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Handling exudate from a patient is an example of which of the following modes of disease transmission?

A. indirect

B. direct

C. airborne

D. vector

B. Direct

  • Direct transmission occurs when an infectious agent is transmitted directly to an individual. In this case the exudate would be the infectious agent being directly passed from person to person.

56
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The medical assistant smells smoke at the work station.  Upon investigation, he discovers a small fire in the trash receptacle by the desk.  He should first

A. evacuate the immediate area.

B. extinguish the fire.

C. activate EMS.

D. contain the fire.

A. evacuate the immediate area.

57
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Which of the following drugs is expected to be stocked in medical office emergency code cart inventory?

A. epinephrine

B. naproxyn (Naprosyn)

C. cimetidine (Tagamet)

D. cefaclor (Ceclor)

A. epinephrine

  • Epinephrine is an important drug kept in the crash cart - used in emergent conditions such as cardiac arrest (increases b/p and hr) or anaphylaxis (potent bronchodilator, reducing bronchospasm). Epinephrine works to increase cardiac output by increasing peripheral resistance through vasoconstriction.

58
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Which of the following statements by the medical assistant indicates the need for a better understanding of standard precautions?

A. The patient should wear a gown, gloves, and mask to maintain contact-droplet isolation.

B. I will perform hand hygiene after removing gloves.

C. Sharps containers should be replaced when 2/3 full.

D. Antimicrobial wipes may be used for cleaning an exam room between patients.

A. The patient should wear a gown, gloves, and mask to maintain contact-droplet isolation.

59
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Which of the following skin disorders are noncommunicable?

A. alopecia 

B. impetigo

C. scabies

D. poison ivy    

A. alopecia

60
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A patient suspected of having which of the following respiratory disorders should be placed in isolation in the medical office?

A. COPD

B. Active TB

C. Asthma

D. Croup

B. Active TB

61
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Which of the following is the most important defensive mechanism against pathogens?

A. oropharyngeal mucous membranes

B. intact skin

C. acidic environment of the digestive tract

D. the ability to cough and sneeze

B. intact skin

62
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The medical assistant is reprocessing a contaminated endoscope.  Which of the following is the minimum level of asepsis required for this instrument?

A. chemical sterilization

B. disinfection

C. autoclave

D. sanitization

D. disinfection

63
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While giving a patient an injection, the patient jumped, causing the medical assistant to get stuck on the hand with a contaminated needle.  After performing thorough hand washing, which of the following should the medical assistant do first?

A. Begin infectious disease prophylaxis.

B. Complete an exposure incident report.

C. Obtain patient consent for infectious disease testing.

D. Report the incident to a supervisor.

D. Report the incident to a supervisor.

  • If a healthcare worker is accidentally stuck with a needle, there are specific OSHA guidelines to follow. The worker should immediately flush with water, then tell a supervisor of the incident. The worker would then be directed to confidentially seek a physicians care.

64
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Which of the following specific precautions should a patient be placed on to prevent the transmission of Clostridium difficile?

A. standard

B. airborne

C. droplet

D. contact

D. contact

  • Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is a toxin-producing, spore-forming bacterium found in feces. Clinical symptoms of infection include both nausea and watery diarrhea and can result in colitis, perforation, or sepsis.

65
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When working with a patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), the ECG technician should

A. take the precautions for a contact pathogen.

B. use a special mask as it is an airborne pathogen.

C. use the procedures for reverse isolation.

D. use gloves and a mask if the patient is being treated.

A. take the precautions for a contact pathogen.

  • The medical professional needs to take the appropriate precautions for a contact pathogen, since MRSA is spread by contact. These precautions would include gloves, hand hygiene, mouth, nose, and eye protection, and a gown.

66
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Which precautions would be used for a patient with Pulmonary TB?

A. airborne

B. droplet

C. contact

D. percutaneous

A. airborne