Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy pacop (Violet)

D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms.

Which of the following is NOT included in the treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis?

A. Implement appropriate environmental controls.

B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching and rhinorrhea

C. Administer intranasal steroids if with sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion.

D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms.

E.I f symptoms still not controlled, consider Montelukast.

D. A, B, C

Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure includes:

A. Edema

B. Orthostatic Hypotension E. A and B

C. Foamy urine

D. A, B, C

D. All of these

Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of the following?

A. Clubbing

B. Cyanosis

C. Trauma

D. A, B, C

E. None of these

D. To compare air and bone conduction.

Why is the Rinne Test performed?

A. To assess equilibrium.

B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds.

C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears better in one ear than in the other.

D. To compare air and bone conduction.

E. All of these

E. Bulla

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:

A. Excoriation

B. Lichenification

C. Millium

D. Nevus

E. Bulla

C. Transillumination

Method of assessing the sinuses:

A. Inspection

B. Percussion

C. Transillumination

D. Expression

E. Auscultation

B. Supine

Which body position allows longer retention times for enemas?

A. Lithotomy

B. Supine

C. Sitting

D. Erect

E. Prone

C. Grade 2

Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired calculation ability.

A. Grade 0

B. Grade 1

C. Grade 2

D. Grade 3

E. Grade 4

C. Increased renal blood flow

The following are factors that may exacerbate established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT:

A. Hypotension

B. Prostatic hypertrophy

C. Increased renal blood flow

D. Nephrotoxins

E. Hypertension

E. Myopia

Another term for nearsightedness:

A. astigmatism

B. hyperopia

C. exophthalmos

D. Presbyopia

E. Myopia

B. Antibiotic therapy

Which of the following may cause "hairy tongue"?

A. Hypercholesterolemia

B. Antibiotic therapy

C. Measles

D. Liver disease

E. Aging

E. All of these

Which strategy may be advised to a patient who considers Beta blockers unpleasant to take?

A. Change the dosage regimen.

B. Consider verapamil.

C. Encourage patient to use regularly.

D. A and B

E. All of these

A. Taken once daily.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Captopril?

A. Taken once daily.

B. First-dose hypotension may occur

C. May worsen renal failure

D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur

E. Hyperkalemia may be expected

B. Estrogen

The following drugs may increase anticoagulant effect, EXCEPT:

A. Ketoconazole

B. Estrogen

C. Gemfibrozil

D. Erythromycin

E. Zafirlukast

C. Lactose dry powder

Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex bronchoconstriction:

A. Pilocarpine

B. Aspirin

C. Lactose dry powder

D. Penicillin

E. Timolol

E. Indirect percussion

Physical assessment technique of creating a note by tapping a finger placed on the body:

A. Palpation

B. Auscultation

C. Ballotement

D. Direct percussion

E. Indirect percussion

A. Iron

Koilonychia is due to deficiency of ___________?

A. Iron

B. Vitamin B12

C. Calcium

D. Water

E. Vitamin C

B. Dandruff

Example of a Scale skin lesion:

A. Hives

B. Dandruff

C. Measles rash

A. Diazepam

Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used among elderly patients?

A. Diazepam

B. Oxazepam

C. Alprazolam

D. Valproate

First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures:

A. Phenobarbital

B. Acetazolamide

C. Phenytoin

D. Valproate

E. Topiramate

E. A, B, and C

A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian syndrome if patient has bradykinesia, plus one or more of the following:

A. Classic rest tremor

B. Muscular rigidity

C. Postural instability

D. B and C

E. A, B, and C

C. Medication Order

These are orders for in-patients in hospitals and other institutions written by physicians on forms:

A. Physician's Order Sheet

B. Prescription

C. Medication Order

D. Recipe

E. A and D

The following are types of information under social/ economic database, EXCEPT:

A. Daily activities

B. Ethnic background

C. Living arrangement

D. Sexual History

E. A and D

C. World Health Organization model

"Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." This condition is according to which model?

A. Environmental model

B. Wellness model

C. World Health Organization model

D. Medical model

E. All of these

C. Long-term

Patients of psychiatric conditions usually stay in which type of hospital?

A. Non-governmental

B. General

C. Long-term

D. 400-499 bed-capacity

E. Short-term

A. Research

Which function of the hospital is geared towards the improvement of hospital services and advancement of medical knowledge against disease?

A. Research

B. Wellness

C. Education

D. Patient care

A. Direct Questioning

Type of questioning: "What medication do you take for a headache?"

A. Direct Questioning

B. Indirect Questioning

C. Probing

B. Attention

"Spell WORLD backwards" is an example of a test for what area of mental state?

A. Orientation

B. Attention

C. Recall

D. Registration

C. Occupation

Which information is under the Demographic database?

A. Patient Identification Number

B. Physician and prescribers

C. Occupation

D. Personality type

E. Ethnic background

D. Medical Social Service

Volunteer service belongs to which department in the hospital?

A. Pharmacy service

B. Medical Library

C. Business office

D. Medical Social Service

E. Administrative

E. None of these

When using the standardized outline approach, which of the following is NOT followed when writing Progress Notes?

A. Subjective data

B. Objective data

C. Recommendation

D. Impression

E. None of these

C. Compounding/ Formulation

The question "Are agents available in commercial formulation?" represents which request classification for drug information?

A. Adverse Drug Reaction

B. Availability

C. Compounding/ Formulation

D. Identification

E. Compatibility/ Stability

A. Drug Facts and Comparisons

When looking for information regarding method of administration, which of the following drug information sources may be the most useful?

A. Drug Facts and Comparisons

B. RPS

C. Goodman and Gilman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference

E. USP DI

B. Hemoptysis

If the answer to the question "Do you cough up blood?" is negative, which of the following is to be noted that the patient denied of?

A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

B. Hemoptysis

C. Shortness of breath

D. Exertional SOB

E. Rales

B. Formulary system

This is an important tool for assuring the quality of drug use and controlling its cost in an institution such as the hospital.

A. Essential drug list

B. Formulary system

C. Formulary

D. P&T Committee

E. Core list

B. Clinic

A facility where ambulatory patients are seen for appointments and treated by a group of physicians practicing together.

A. Long-term health care facility

B. Clinic

C. Hospital

D. County hospital

E. Resident treatment facility

C. Biomedical Engineering

Which of the following belongs to the business management or administrative side of the hospital?

A. Medical Records

B. Medical Library

C. Biomedical Engineering

D. Pharmacy Service

E. Dietary and Nutrition Service

B. Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.

Which of the following statements regarding questioning strategies for the pharmacist-patient encounter is CORRECT?

A. Probing questions are assertive and aggressive.

B. Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.

C. Open-ended questions are for narrow-focused answers.

D. Direct questions encourages patient to elaborate.

E. All except A

D. Neurological System

Which of the following body areas is last in the sequence followed for physical examination?

A. HEENT

B. Genitals

C. Rectum

D. Neurological System

E. Lower extremities

D. Height and weight

The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface area (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use the nomogram?

A. Age and height

B. Age and weight

C. Height and creatinine clearance

D. Height and weight

E. Weight and sex

E. Drug Information

Which of the following is a comprehensive, unbiased source of current information on drugs often used as hospital nursing stations, and serves as a basis for pharmacists to extend their role as pharmaceutical consultants to the medical profession?

A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals

B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy

C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts

D. American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy

E. Drug Information

C. Free floor stock

Which class of stock system consists of a predetermined list of medications that are usually used in large quantities and are prepackaged in standardized containers?

A. Unit-dose system

B. Charge floor stock

C. Free floor stock

D. Inpatient prescription system

E. Coordinated control system

D. Education

Aside from Policy Development, what is the other primary purpose of the P & T committee?

A. Operation

B. Organization

C. Community Health

D. Education

E. Drug Administration

C. Free floor stock

Water for injection is an example of drugs dispensed in which type of stock system?

A. Unit dose system

B. Charge floor stock

C. Free floor stock

D. Inpatient prescription system

E. Coordinated control system

B. Drug of choice

Which of the following drug information may not be found in Physician's Desk Reference?

A. Lactation

B. Drug of choice

C. ADR

D. Dosage

D. Medical Letter

Which of the following journals cover medical news and original articles?

A. Drug Information Journal

B. Archives of Internal Medicine

C. New England Journal of Medicine

D. Medical Letter

E. Gloomy

Which of the following describes a medium intensity of feeling, which can be used in a medical interview?

A. Marvelous

B. Upset

C. Distraught

D. Blue

E. Gloomy

D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.

The following statements regarding arterial blood gases are true, EXCEPT:

A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2 <4.5 kPa

B. Oxygen saturation is measured by pulse oximetry

C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate PaCO2

D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.

E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa may indicate hypoxaemia

B. Pancytopenia

Which term refers to a decreased number of cell types is synonymous with aplastic anemia?

A. Microcytic

B. Pancytopenia

C. Aplastic

D. Thrombocytopenia

A. Insertion of a central venous catheter

Which of the following is an invasive test or procedure?

A. Insertion of a central venous catheter

B. Taking of chest x-ray films

C. Collection of spontaneously voided urine

D. Comparative measurements of body parts

E. All except B

C. Echography

Which one of the following uses high frequency sound waves imperceptible to the human ear to create images of organs?

A. Standard Radiography

B. Echocardiography

C. Echography

D. Echocardiogram

E. Radionuclide studies

D. Behavioral

Sexual history is under what patient information type/ section?

A. Demographic

B. Medical

C. Social

D. Behavioral

C. Thyroxine

Assessment of pancreatic function may be determined by the following, EXCEPT:

A. Glucose

B. Amylase

C. Thyroxine

D. Insulin

E. None of these

B. Objective

Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an example of what data type?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Assessment

E. Bilirubin

Which one of the following is useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver disease?

A. Amylase

B. Hematocrit

C. Hemoglobin

D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

E. Bilirubin

A. Black

What color of the stool is generally associated with upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding?

A. Black

B. Gray

C. Light Gray

D. Brown

A. Hepatic dysfunction

Which one of the following may indicate longer prothrombin time?

A. Hepatic dysfunction

B. Increased Vitamin K

C. Increased production of clotting factors

D. All of these

E. None of these

A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding patient chart preparation?

A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.

B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil.

C. Blue ink is conventional.

D. The patient should be identifiable by at least one (1) demographic characteristic.

E. All of the choices except B

B. Gastrointestinal infection

Which one of the following may be an indication of the presence of white blood cells in the stool?

A. Bile duct obstruction

B. Gastrointestinal infection

C. Measles

D. Dehydration

E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit

B. Enema

Which dosage form is utilized in barium studies?

A. Troches

B. Enema

C. Implant

D. Ointment

A. Itchiness

Using the Scratch Test, which one of the following is not a criterion for evaluation of the skin indicating the patient's sensitivity to an allergen?

A. Itchiness

B. Swelling

C. Redness

D. No change/ reaction

E. B and C

C. Rectum

A bronchoscope is introduced through the following openings, EXCEPT:

A. Nose

B. Endotracheal tube

C. Rectum

D. Mouth

D. Ultrasonography

Which one of the following is a noninvasive test or procedure?

A. Venipuncture

B. Radionuclide studies

C. Paracentesis

D. Ultrasonography

C. Occult blood

Parameter of fecalysis that is used in the diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage:

A. Consistency

B. Fecal parasites

C. Occult blood

D. Amount

E. Metronidazole

Drug that may cause brown-colored urine:

A. Methyldopa

B. Rifampicin

C. Indomethacin

D. Doxorubicin

E. Metronidazole

A. Albumin

Major component of plasma proteins and indicates severity in chronic liver disease

A. Albumin

B. Creatinine

C. Hemoglobin

D. Glucose

E. Bilirubin

A. Schilling Test

Test to evaluate the absorption of Vitamin B12:

A. Schilling Test

B. Rinne Test

C. Weber's Test

D. Romberg Test

E. Schamroth Technique

A. Proteus mirabilis infection - urine pH 9.0

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is TRUE?

A. Proteus mirabilis infection - urine pH 9.0

B. Hypothyroidism - FTI4: 6.4

C. Warfarin therapy - Bleeding time: 2 min

D. Primary hyperparathyroidism - Serum chloride: 128 mEq/L

E. Previous myocardial infarction - CK- MB: 5.7 ng/mL

D. Hemolytic disease - Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL

Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is FALSE?

A. Hepatocellular damage - Female patient: ALT: 50 U/L

B. Folic acid deficiency - Male patient: 76%

C. Lithium carbonate therapy - Serum Potassium: 2.1 mEq/L

D. Hemolytic disease - Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL

E. Diabetes mellitus - GIT: 180 mg/dL at 2 hrs

A. Edrophonium tensilon test

Test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:

A. Edrophonium tensilon test

B. Ventilation Scanning

C. Scratch and Patch Test

D. Romberg Test

B. Serum ferritin

Test of choice in patients suspected of having iron deficiency anemia:

A. Coomb's Test

B. Serum ferritin

C. ZPP fluorescence

D. C-reactive protein

D. Biofeedback

This refers to the technique of manipulating unconscious or involuntary bodily processes made perceptible to the senses by conscious mental control:

A. Naturopathy

B. Auscultation

C. Acupuncture

D. Biofeedback

C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2

BMI category indicating a Possible likelihood of chronic protein-energy under nutrition:

A. <10 kg/ m2

B. <18 kg/ m2

C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2

D. 20-35 kg/ m2

A. Sodium chloride

In parenteral nutrition, which supplies Chloride the most per mL?

A. Sodium chloride

B. Potassium chloride

C. Calcium chloride

D. Iron chloride

E. None of these

E. None of these

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic drugs:

A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock fittings are recommended.

B. Syringes should be large enough to accommodate the total dose needed.

C. Syringes should not be three-quarters full when containing the total drug dose.

D. B and C

E. None of these

A. Equality

Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the therapeutic relationship between the patient and the pharmacist?

A. Equality

B. Trust

C. Empathy

D. Authenticity

C. Thrombophlebitis

Example of metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:

A. Thrombocytopenia

B. Lipid intolerance

C. Thrombophlebitis

D. Essential fatty acid deficiency

E. Refeeding syndrome

A. Metacognition

An important clinical skill that refers to the continuous process of deliberation and reflection during problem solving:

A. Metacognition

B. Ethnocentricity

C. Adherence

D. Genuineness

E. Manipulation

D. Koplik spots

Which clinical finding is associated to Measles?

A. Hairy tongue

B. Chvostek's sign

C. Osler's node

D. Koplik spots

E. Xanthelesma

A. Papule

A small, circumscribed, elevated solid lesion:

A. Papule

B. Vesicle

C. Patch

D. Macule

E. Comedo

E. Liver

What body organ is associated with fetor hepaticus?

A. Kidney

B. Uterus

C. Oral mucosa

D. Skin

E. Liver

C. Clinic environment

Practice sites for Ambulatory Care Setting:

A. Nursing homes

B. Patient's residence

C. Clinic environment

D. A, B, C

E. B and C

B. Muddy sclera

Conditions that can affect vision, EXCEPT:

A. Astigmatism

B. Muddy sclera

C. Conical cornea

D. Corneal

E. All except B

E. B and C

Which of the following describes a macule?

A. Wart

D. A and C

B. Colored lesion

E. B and C

C. Less than 1cm

D. Low and frequent vocalization

Which among the given characteristics is NOT true regarding a Social interaction as to space boundaries with patient?

A. Patient is 4-12 feet away.

B. Body contact is described as out of reach.

C. Eye contact is important.

D. Low and frequent vocalization

E. None of these

C. Vesicle

Herpes zoster is an example of ________

A. Patch

D. Papule

B. Scale

E. Macule

C. Vesicle

B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts

Which of the following databases is published by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)?

A. MEDLARS

B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts

C. Index Medicus

D. Toxline

E. EMBASE

B. Vitamin C

What is deficiency in scurvy?

A. Vitamin B1

D. Iron

B. Vitamin

C E. Phosphorus

C. Calcium

E. Bulla

Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:

A. Excoriation

D. Vesicle

BE. Bulla

C. Millium

A. Tidal volume

Volume of air inspired or expired with normal breathing:

A. Tidal volume

B. Residual volume

C. Peak expiratory flow

D. Forced tidal capacity

E. A and B

B. Anthropometrics

Comparative measurements of parts of the body are used to assess nutritional status:

A. Manometry

D. EMG

B. Anthropometrics

E. ESR

C. Schilling Test

C. Clin-Alert

Which of the following is NOT a primary literature for drug information?

A. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report

B. Annals of Internal Medicine

C. Clin-Alert

D. Lancet

E. Pharmacotherapy

A. Potassium

Electrolyte level is increased due to spironolactone use:

A. Potassium

D. Calcium

B. Magnesium

E. Chloride

C. Sodium

E. A, B, C

Drugs that may cause dyspepsia

A. Corticosteroids

D. Either A or B

B. Iron E. A, B, C

C. Antibiotics

C. Hyperkalemia

The following are precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT:

A. Constipation

D. Bacterial peritonitis

B. High-protein diet

E. Benzodiazepines

C. Hyperkalemia

D. A, B, C

Contraindications to thrombolysis as an intervention to acute coronary syndrome:

A. One week postpartum

D. A, B, C

B. CNS Neoplasm

E. A and C

C. Oral anticoagulant therapy

D. Medication List

When organizing a patient's Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR), which of the following may be found on the last pages/ sections?

A. Graphic charts

D. Medication List

B. Laboratory data

E. Physicians Orders

C. Progress notes

A. Bradycardia

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of heart failure?

A. Bradycardia

D. Confusion

B. Pallor

E. Hepatomegaly

C. Fatigue

C. Complexation

What is the interaction of Tetracycline and milk?

A. Potentiation

D. Enzyme inhibition

B. Drug displacement

E. Addition

C. Complexation

B. Admit summary

In what section of the medical chart can one find the patient's Past Medical History (PMH)?

A. Flow sheet

D. Progress notes

B. Admit summary

E. Patient interview

C. Admission form