Detection and Identification of Antibodies (Exam 2)

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Last updated 6:58 PM on 6/26/26
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77 Terms

1
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The degree of reactivity at ______ of testing is graded.

all phases

2
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The gel method of antibody screening involves a microtubule filled with a ______ gel.

dextran acrylamide

3
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The screen cells used in the gel method must be a ______ suspension.

0.8%

4
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The solid phase adherence method for antibody screen uses red cell adherence to ______ to aid in antibody capture.

microtiter wells

5
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Agglutination or hemolysis at an stage of antibody screen testing is a ______ test result.

positive

6
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What are some limitations to antibody screening?

- Antibody titer below the level of sensitivity

-Low prevalence antigens and antibodies

- Lack of homozygous expression of the target antigen on screening cells (dosage)

7
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What factors influence antibody screen sensitivity?

- Cell:serum ratio

- Temperature and phase of reactivity

- Length of incubation and pH

8
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A positive antibody screen requires additional testing to ______ the antibody and determine its clinical significance.

identify

9
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This involves testing against additional RBCs possessing ______.

known antigens

10
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An antibody identification panel is a collection of 11-20 group ______ RBCs with various antigen expression.

O

11
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Antibody identification panels should include cells with homozygous expression of ...

- Rh

- Duffy

- Kidd

- MNSs

12
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The focus of antibody detection methods is on ______ antibodies.

unexpected

13
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The most important antibodies in Ab ID are ______.

immune alloantibodies

14
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Immune alloantibodies are produced in response to ...

- Transfusion

- Transplantation

- Pregnancy

15
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What are the types of naturally occurring antibodies?

- Immune alloantibodies

- Naturally occurring antibodies

- Passively acquired antibodies

- Autoantibodies

16
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Autoantibodies can mask underlying ______.

alloantibodies

17
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The first hint that a patient has an autoantibody is the ______.

auto-control

18
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Unexpected antibodies may complicate the ______ of clinically significant antibodies.

detection

19
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Clinically significant means that the antibodies decrease the ______ of RBCs possessing the target antigen.

survival

20
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These clinically significant antibodies can cause ...

- Hemolytic transfusion reactions

- HDFN

21
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Clinically significant antibodies are typically ______.

IgG (warm)

22
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Antibody screen is included in ______ testing and for ______ transplant donors/recipients.

prenatal, BM/SC

23
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The traditional method of detecting clinically significant antibodies is the ______ method.

tube

24
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The tube method for antibody screen is an ______ antiglobulin test.

indirect

25
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Using the tube method for antibody screen, ______ from group O individuals are packaged in sets of 2 or 3 cell suspensions.

screen cells

26
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Each set of screen cells is accompanied by an ______ detailing which antigens are present in each vial of cells.

antigen profile sheet (antigram)

27
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Homozygous cells exhibit a ______ dose of antigen.

double

28
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Antibodies that react more strongly with cells having homozygous antigen expression are said to show ______.

dosage

29
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What common blood groups exhibit dosage?

- Rh (not D)

- Kidd

- Duffy

- MNSs

- Lutheran

30
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______ may be added to the cell/serum mixture before the 37C incubation phase of the tube antibody screen method.

Enhancement reagents (potentiators)

31
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Potentiators help increase the ______ of the test system.

sensitivity

32
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What are some potentiators?

- 22% albumin

- LISS

- PEG

33
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______ reagents are important in tube antibody screening, and can be monospecific/polyspecific.

Antihuman globulin (AHG)

34
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IgG coated ______ cells are used in order to show agglutination presence.

control

35
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The immediate spin phase of the tube antibody screen method is ______ (required/not required).

not required

36
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Depending on the enhancement added, the antibody screen tubes may be centrifuged and observed for ______ and ______ following incubation.

hemolysis, agglutination

37
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The ______ phase of tube antibody screening is always done.

37C incubation

38
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Check cells are added to all ______ AHG phase tubes.

negative

39
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To have a valid test, the check cells must ______.

agglutinate

40
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In antibody identification, ______ antibodies that could not be responsible for the reactivity seen.

exclude (rule out)

41
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After each negatively reacting cell has been evaluated, the remaining antigens should be examined to see if the pattern of reactivity matches a pattern of ______ cells.

antigen positive

42
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The rule of 3 states that there must be at least 3 ______ to rule an antibody out.

positive cells

43
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If a patient has a positive ______ or has been ______ in the past 3 month, you cannot accurately phenotype their RBCs.

DAT, transfused

44
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What can be used to fix a positive DAT in a patient?

- Acid glycine/EDTA (EGA)

- Chloroquine diphosphate

45
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______ can be used to make a recent transfusion not interfere with phenotyping.

Reticulocyte separation

46
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______ additional cells can be a technique used to help with rule ins/outs.

Hand selecting

47
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Cherry-picking additional cells can also be used when a patient has a history of a ______ antibody and you must exclude all other significant antibodies.

known

48
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Enzymes are helpful in ______ multiple antibodies present in a sample.

separating

49
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What are some enzymes that can be used for this?

- Ficin

- Papain

- Bromelin

- Trypsin

50
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Enzymes will modify the RBC surface by removing ______ residues and by ______ glycoproteins.

sialic acid, denaturing/removing

51
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Neutralization allows for ______ of antibodies or confirmation that an antibody is present.

separation

52
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Anti-P1 comes from ...

Hydatid cyst fluid, egg whites

53
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Anti-Lewis comes from ...

plasma, saliva

54
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Anti-Sda comes from ______.

urine

55
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Antibodies may be removed from plasma by adding the ______ and allowing for antibody binding.

target antigen

56
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This is referred to as ______.

adsorption

57
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Adsorbed plasma can be tested for the presence of ______.

"unadsorbed" alloantibodies

58
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What are the types of adsorption?

Autoadsorption, alloadsorption, phenotypically matched adsorption

59
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A DAT is used to to detect ______ sensitization of RBCs.

in-vivo

60
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DAT is used for detection of ______ or ______ coating RBCs.

antibodies, complement

61
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DATs are helpful to investigate ...

- Suspected hemolyic txn reactions

- HDFN

- Autoimmune and drug-induced hemolytic anemias

62
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If a DAT is positive for IgG antibody, you must ______ antibodies coating the RBC surface to allow for identification.

dissociate (remove)

63
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What are some elution techniques for positive DAT?

- Temperature-dependent methods (heat or freeze-thaw)

- pH adjustment (acid)

- Organic solvents

64
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Antibody titration quantifies the ______ of antibody present.

amount

65
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Antibody titration consists of two-fold serial dilutions of ______ tested against a suspension of ______ possessing the target antigen.

serum, RBCs

66
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What levels of antibody titration are significant?

- Four-fold or greater increase in titer

- Increase in score of 10 or more

67
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What are some clinical applications of antibody titration?

- HDFN

- Differentiation of immune anti-D from passively acquired anti-D due to RhIG administration

- Confirm the presence of antibodies previously known as HTLA (high titer, low avidity)

- List patients as eligible for incompatible transplants

68
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When providing compatible blood products, consider the antigen ______.

frequency (in population)

69
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You must also consider the ______ of the antibody.

clinical significance

70
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Units must be antigen ______ if a clinically significant antibody is present or there is pt history of them.

negative

71
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Clinically significant antibodies must be compatible at the ______ phase.

AHG

72
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Patients with sickle cell or beta-thalassemia receive transfusions ______.

chronically

73
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These patients are more likely to form ______.

alloantibodies

74
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In this case, you must give ______ pRBCs to prevent the formation of alloantibodies, specifically for Rh and K antigens.

phenotypically-matched

75
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Compatibility formula

y = x/combined frequency of antigen negative units

76
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If 64% of donors are compatible with a recipient, how many units would have to be tested to find 4 compatible units?

y = 4/0.64 = 6.2 (round up to 7)

77
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