HDFS Exam 3 : Weeks 12-16 Quizzes

Disruptive, Impulse Control, and Conduct Disorders are characterized by problems in the self-control of emotions and social communication.

False

Individuals diagnosed with either Conduct Disorder or Oppositional Defiant Disorder typically experience the first onset of concerning behaviors when they are ________________

Children/adolescents

Many of the symptoms that define disruptive, impulse-control, and conduct disorders are behaviors that occur, to some degree, in typically developing individuals. Therefore, it is critical that the frequency, persistence, and pervasiveness across situations is considered.

True

The symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder may be confined to only one setting, and this is most frequently the home. Individuals who show enough symptoms to meet the diagnostic threshold, even if it is only at home, may be significantly impaired in their ______________________

social functioning

The neurodevelopmental disorder of __________ is often a comorbid diagnosis with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD). To make the additional diagnosis of ODD, it is important to determine the context in which an individual fails to conform to requests of others.

ADHD

An individual diagnosed with Conduct Disorder who has been arrested for forced sex, physical cruelty, and use of a weapon while confronting a victim, would be assigned which severity level:

Severe

____________ is defined as recurrent behavioral outbursts representing a failure to control aggressive impulses. It can be manifested by either 1) Verbal aggression or physical aggression toward property, animals, or other individuals, occurring twice weekly, on average, for a period of 3 months OR 2) Three behavioral outbursts involving damage or destruction of property and/or physical assault involving physical injury against animals or other individuals occurring within a 12-month period.

Intermittent Explosive Disorder

Lukens & Silverman (2014) estimate that up to _____ % of neuro-developmental challenged children have feeding difficulties.

80

Phase ____ of swallowing involves the pharyngeal transfer phase and begins when the bolus passes the faucial arches (near the tonsils) and triggers the start of the swallowing cascade

Phase 3

What is the earliest oral pattern and has been reported in fetuses by 15 weeks' gestation?

Suckling

Chewing skills with tongue lateralization typically occurs contemporaneously with a pincer grasp for picking up small pieces, eruption of teeth, and increased trunk control enabling crawling.

False

______ refers to food or a foreign substance entering into the airway

Aspiration

A feeding problem is considered a feeding disorder if the problem exists more than ___ months and/or results in 1) significant weight loss or nutritional deficiency, 2) dependence on tube feeding or nutritional supplements, or 3) impairment in psychosocial functioning in developmental deviation or delay

One

Which of the following is NOT a cause for oral-motor problems in children?

Neurodevelopmental disorders

Texture-focused selectivity is most commonly seen in children with cerebral palsy who have oral-motor problems

True

Who on the interdisciplinary team can help to evaluate tongue movement with and without food in the mouth? This occupation can also facilitate more successful oral motor patterns by manipulating the texture or placement of food in the oral cavity.

Speech-language therapist

Problems with GI irritation and dysmotility can adversely affect respiratory and GI function, as well as the child's level of comfort, and should be treated

True

Despite a number of common psychological and behavioral features between the DSM-5 Feeding and Eating Disorders, these disorders substantially differ in clinical course, outcome, and treatment needs

True

The essential feature of rumination disorder is the repeated regurgitation of food occurring after feeding or eating over a period of at least 1 month. True or False: Health/medical concerns for infants/toddlers with rumination disorder are minor.

False

For some individuals diagnosed with Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, food avoidance or restriction may be based on extreme sensitivities to the qualities of food, including _________

All of the above

Darrius, a 16 year old cisgender male, is currently being evaluated for an eating disorder. As part of the intake process, the clinician measures his body mass index (BMI) to determine if it is below or within the expected the level for his age and height. Darrius' BMI was 25.2.

Which of the following eating disorder diagnoses is Darrius LEAST likely to receive

Anorexia nervosa

An essential feature of _______ is the eating of one or more nonnutritive, nonfood substances on a persistent basis over a period of at least 1 month that is severe enough to warrant clinical attention.

Pica

According to Schaumberg et al. (2017), recognizing the high prevalence and toll of eating disorders on society, we now have a comprehensive understanding of the etiology of eating disorders.

False

According to Schaumberg et al. (2017), weight loss is a defining characteristic of (1) _______, but not (2) ___________ or (3) ____________. On average, which of the following three eating disorders BEST represent this statement?

(1) anorexia nervosa; (2) bulimia nervosa; (3) binge-eating disorder

As mentioned in Schaumberg et al. (2017), eating disorders are NOT choices but serious biologically influenced illnesses.

True

As discussed in Schaumberg et al. (2017), structural neuroimaging studies of individuals diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa (AN) have predominately demonstrated reductions in ________ in various brain regions, highlighting brain structure and function differences do exist between individuals with AN and unaffected individuals

grey matter

Trauma- and stressor-related disorders include disorders in which exposure to a traumatic or stressful event is listed explicitly as a diagnostic criterion. These include reactive attachment disorder, disinhibited social engagement disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), acute stress disorder, and adjustment disorders

True

For many individuals who have been exposed to a traumatic or stressful event, the most prominent clinical characteristics are anhedonic and dysphoric symptoms, externalizing angry and aggressive symptoms, or dissociative symptoms rather than anxiety- or fear-based symptoms

True

Which of the following disorders is characterized by a consistent pattern of inhibited, emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers?

reactive attachment disorder

The essential feature of ________ is a pattern of behavior that involves culturally inappropriate, overly familiar behavior with relative strangers that violate social boundaries

disinhibited social engagement disorder

According to the DSM-5, which of the following appears to modify the course of disinhibited social engagement disorder?

quality of caregiving

Which DSM-5 trauma and stressor-related disorder has distinct diagnostic criteria for children 6 years and younger?

posttraumatic stress disorder

Approximately half of individuals who go on to develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) initially received a DSM-5 diagnosis of acute stress disorder. For acute stress disorder, the development of characteristic symptoms are present for approximately:

3 days to 1 month following exposure to 1 or more traumatic events

Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violation is part of the main diagnostic criteria for both PTSD and acute stress disorder. This exposure can include all of the following, except:

exposure to extreme traumatic event(s) through television, media, movies, or pictures that is non work related

The presence of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor is the essential feature of adjustment disorders (Criterion A). True or False: Individuals from disadvantaged life circumstances may be at increased risk for being diagnosed with adjustment disorders.

True

Marisa is an 8-year-old girl who experienced emotional abuse and neglect from her primary caregiver until she was removed and placed in foster care. Unfortunately, when Marisa is distressed she rarely seeks or responds to comfort from her foster parents. According to the DSM-5, Marisa's response is most consistent with Diagnostic Criterion A of which trauma and stressor-related disorder?

reactive attachment disorder

Frequently referred to as "ACEs," the acronym representing potentially traumatic events that occur in childhood stands for ___________. Examples of ACEs include experiencing violence, abuse, or neglect; witnessing violence in the home; and having a family member attempt or die by suicide

Adverse Childhood Experiences

ACEs can have lasting effects on individuals' health, behavior, and life potential

True

ACEs are often associated with significant struggles in living situations. ____________ is a condition associated with ACEs.

All of the above

Toxic stress refers to the prolonged activation of the stress-response system and can be caused by ACEs

True

To date, research has demonstrated changes to children's brains from toxic stress affecting

All of the above

Children growing up with toxic stress are often able to form healthy and stable relationships without difficulty

False

Unfortunately, ACEs and their associated harms are unavoidable

False

Which strategy includes mentoring and after-school programing in their approach to prevent ACEs?

Connect youth to caring adults and activities

Which strategy includes early childhood home visitation and high-quality child care in their approach to prevent ACEs?

Ensure a strong start for children

The strategies for preventing ACEs (Advise Childhood Experiences) are intended to work in combination and reinforce each other to achieve the greatest impact.

True

Other than war, what do the authors argue are the best documented observations of child responses to mass trauma?

Specific disasters (e.g., Buffalo Creek dam disaster)

Across studies of mass trauma, loss or injury to loved ones had greater effects on children than material losses.

True

Which of the following is NOT one of the guiding conceptual frameworks the authors use to describe and understand the adaptation of children and youth in the context of disasters, terrorism, and war?

Social learning theory

__________ can be defined as the capacity of a dynamic system to withstand or recover from significant challenges that threaten its stability, viability, or development

Resilience

According to the article, self-control, problem solving-skills, close relationships with competent caregivers, and safe neighborhoods are all examples of:

Promotive and protective factors

Which of the following is NOT a term used to describe how the effects of traumatic experiences can spread over time?

Bioecological effects

Which of the following statements best reflects the concept of dose-related effects, as described in the article?

Exposure to trauma or adversity of greater severity results in a higher average impact on the adaptation of children.

Factors such as genetics, age, gender, and previous exposure to trauma can influence how an individual responds to extreme adversity

True

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation given in the article regarding disaster and conflict readiness?

Intervention is not likely to disrupt or undermine naturally occurring resilience or recovery processes, so it is always best to administer interventions as soon as possible

Using a rigorous randomized design, Troller-Renfree et al (2022) provides evidence that giving monthly unconditional cash transfers to mothers experiencing poverty in the first year of their children's lives may change infant brain activity

True

At birth, family income appears to be unrelated to brain activity, as measured by EEG. However, some studies find that family income quickly begins to predict differences in the neurodevelopmental patterns. Specifically, several studies with small sample sizes have suggested that within the first several years of life, children from lower-income families average more low-frequency (i.e., theta) EEG band power, and less mid- to high-frequency (i.e., alpha, beta, and gamma) band power compared with children from higher-income homes.

True

As children mature from the neonatal period through middle childhood, they tend to show a decrease in brain power in the low-frequency portion of the frequency spectrum, as well an increase in brain power in the mid- to high frequency portions of the frequency spectrum. Individual differences in this pattern, particularly in absolute power, have been associated with children's cognitive and behavioral outcomes.For example, more absolute power in mid- to high- (i.e., alpha, beta, and gamma) frequency bands has been associated with higher language, cognitive, and social-emotional scores, whereas more absolute or relative low-frequency (i.e., theta) power has been associated with the development of behavioral, attention, or learning problems

True

While family income is associated with developmental differences in children's brain structure and function, there is no debate as to whether growing up in poverty causes these differences in early brain development

False

Children's brain development reflects an adaptation to their lived experiences. Importantly, different brain activity patterns are likely to be adaptive in different contexts, and a typically developing brain will adapt to the environment it experiences. In some cases, such malleability may confer obvious benefits, whereas in other cases, it may lead to the development of adaptive but costly strategies for optimizing biological fitness under scarce conditions. In the latter case, adaptation does not necessarily represent dysfunction or dysregulation, but rather, an expected and appropriate response to the environment

True

At birth, family income appears to be unrelated to brain activity, as measured by EEG. However, some studies find that family income quickly begins to predict differences in the neurodevelopmental patterns. Specifically, several studies with small sample sizes have suggested that within the first several years of life, children from lower-income families average _____________ compared with children from higher-income homes

all of the above

Children's brain development reflects an adaptation to their lived experiences. Importantly, different brain activity patterns are likely to be adaptive in different contexts, and a typically developing brain will adapt to the environment it experiences. In some cases, such malleability may confer obvious benefits, whereas in other cases, it may lead to the development of adaptive but costly strategies for optimizing biological fitness under scarce conditions. In the latter case, adaptation represents ______________

expected and appropriate response to environment

Many of those who suffer from trauma will not experience any long-term effects as a result, but some individuals are may experience debilitating issues resulting from the trauma they experience. The most common disorders individuals who experience trauma may develop are ________ and ________. (Select all that apply)

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Acute stress disorder

Adverse childhood experiences are common - roughly ½ of all children in the US have experienced at least three ACEs

False

When it comes to community/collective trauma, the symptoms resulting from the trauma can lead to more trauma, creating a cycle. Select the factors below that can support to better outcomes for those who have experienced a community trauma

More locally owned businesses

Higher collective efficacy

Higher presence of jobs

Which of the following is NOT associated with community-level trauma?

Lack of big box stores such as Walmart, Target

Trauma is defined through the "three E's." Which of the following is NOT one of the three E's?

Education

True or False: The concept of developmental cascades only applies to negative experiences such as posttraumatic symptoms.

In other words, positive adaptation and protective effects do not have the potential to spread within individual lives or across generations and populations

False

Based on research indicating that services provided to young children could prevent or ameliorate biological, social, and environmental risks on development, the 1986 amendments to IDEA established the Infants and Toddlers Program, otherwise known as early intervention (EI).

With this ammendment each state much create a system with 16 components, which of the following is not one of required components

A multi-state interagency coordinating council

_________ is often the first step in identifying and referring infants and toddlers who could benefit from EI services

Developmental screening

True/false. An infant or toddler can only be recommended to their local EI program by a licensed medical professional

False

Evaluating a child for eligibility for Part C EI services includes assessing the child in several stages of development. Which of the following are included in those stages?

All of the above

Families are members of the multidisciplinary team associated with early intervention - they contribute to the process of evaluation/assessment by discussing concerns they have for their child, family priorities, and the resources they have available.

True

If a transition from early intervention services to another preschool or childcare program is needed, that transition process needs to start around 6 months before the child is no longer eligible for services. Under IDEA, children stop being eligible for early intervention services at _______ years of age

3

Early intervention services exist in all of the 50 states to benefit infants and toddlers with disabilities and developmental delays

True

According to your text, one issue with the Part C program today is that states are ______ the eligibility criteria, edging out children who have milder disabilities and delays who might stand to benefit most from early intervention services

narrowing

If a child is found eligible for services through the multidisciplinary child and family evaluation process, the team develops a/an ____

individualized family service plan (IFSP)

When treating a child with physical disabilities, the child's history is an important factor to consider when developing a treatment plan. Which of the following is NOT an element of the child's history to consider when developing a treatment plan?

Academic history

As defined by the World Health Organization's International Classification of Functioning, Disability (ICF) framework, a health condition exists because of physiologic disturbances at which of the following levels? (select all that apply)

Cellular

Molecular

Tissue

In evaluating a child with physical disabilities, the first step is to work with the family to develop attainable functional goals and devise a plan to work toward those goals

False

In addition to examining the neurological and musculoskeletal systems during the physical exam, the clinician also needs to test the child's ______ skills before the exam is complete. These skills include how the child moves around the room and how they interact with their caregiver

Functional

The objective of rehabilitative/functional treatment is to identify the child's _____ and maximize those _______ while concurrently recognizing the barriers limiting progress

Strengths

Cerebral palsy is a leading cause of motor impairments in young children. Which of the following describe a motor atypicality common in cerebral palsy?

hypertonia

In treating cerebral palsy in children, interventions aim to reduce secondary musculoskeletal deformities rather than treat the primary central neurological deficit, which is currently not possible

True

When do surgical interventions for spinal bifida typically begin?

At birth

IDEA 2004 defines eligibility for special education services, but there are two other laws that perform a similar function. Which of the following are those other two laws?

Americans with Disabilities Act of 2008

Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973

________ is the fastest growing category recognized by IDEA Part B, accounting for 8.8% of the special education population

Autism

According to your text, the focus of IDEA is on zero reject, meaning that all students with a defined disability must be accommodated by the public school system in some way

True

Section 504 of the Disabilities Act of 2008 defines "disability" more broadly than IDEA 2004, and as such encompasses more children. Which of the following disabilities covered by Section 504 is also covered by IDEA 2004?

Autism

Understanding the differences between Section 504 and IDEA 2004 is important because these laws have different implications for the special education children receive. For example, a 504 plan focuses on _______, whereas a IEP focuses on _______.

Accommodation; specialized instruction

True/false. The special education teacher's mission is to instruct and support the student so they are able to access the curriculum, benefit from educational instruction, and be college/career ready

True

True/false. Parents only see one facet of the student - their behavior at home. Educators, conversely, see the whole student

False

In 2017, the Endrew F. v. Douglas County ruling found that the "merely more than de minimis " standard did not provide ___________________________

free and appropriate public education (FAPE)

Diagnostic criteria for Oppositional Defiant Disorder include a pattern of which three overarching behaviors?

Angry/Irritable Mood; Argumentative/Defiant Behavior; Vindictiveness

The essential feature of pyromania is the presence of multiple episodes of deliberate and purposeful fire setting. True or False: Individuals diagnosed with pyromania generally start fires for monetary gain

False

The essential feature of kleptomania is recurrent failure to resist impulses to steal objects that are not needed for personal use or for their monetary value. True or False: In terms of gender differences in kleptomania diagnoses, males are diagnosed more than females.

False

Many of the symptoms that define disruptive, impulse-control, and conduct disorders are behaviors that occur, to some degree, in typically developing individuals. Therefore, it is critical that the _______ across situations is considered

frequency, persistence, and pervasiveness

____ of swallowing involves the pharyngeal transfer phase and begins when the bolus passes the faucial arches (near the tonsils) and triggers the start of the swallowing cascade.

Phase 3

Trauma- and stressor-related disorders include disorders in which exposure to a traumatic or stressful event is listed explicitly as a diagnostic criterion. These include which of the following

Reactive attachment disorder

Disinhibited social engagement disorder

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Acute stress disorder

Adjustment disorders

Contemporary practice models focus on intervention in a more natural environment. In such a model, the family functions as the ______ and the early intervention provider functions as the ______

child's teacher ; family's educator