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105 Terms

1
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What’s humoral immunity effective against?

is an effective defence against some microorganisms

2
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What’s cell mediated immunity effective against?

intracellular bacteria, viruses and fungi

3
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What do opportunists pathogens do to the oral microflora?

decrease in salivary Flow, antibiotic administration, immune system alterations such as immunosupreesion

4
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What’s Impetigo caused by?

streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococcus aureus

5
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Who does Impetigo usually effect?

young children

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What does Impetigo require for infection?

non intact skin

7
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is there treatment for Impetigo

topical or systemic antibiotics

8
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What does group AB-hemlotyic streptococci cause?

scarlet fever and rheumatic fever

9
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Who does Scarlet fever occur in?

children

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symptoms of Scarlet Fever?

fever, generalized red skn rash caused by a toxin released by bacteria

11
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What are some oral manifestations in Scarlet Fever?

tonsillitis, pharyngitis, petechiae on soft palate and strawberry tongue

12
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What’s strawberry tongue?

fungiform papillae are red and prominent, dorsal surface of tongue exhibits white coating or erythema

13
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Treatment for Scarlet Fever

No

14
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What’s Rheumatic Fever?

a childhood disease that follows a group AB hemolytic streptococcal infection

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What is Rheumatic Fever characterized by?

inflammatory reaction involving the heart, joints, and CNS

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What might happen to the heart with Rheumatic Fever?

heart valve damage

17
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How might a heart valve damage affect client care?

might need a premedication

18
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What bacteria s TB caused by?

mycobacterium tuberculosis

19
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What kind of ulcerations are seen orally in someone that has TB?

panful, non healing and slowly enlarging

20
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signs and symptoms of TB?

fever, chills, fatigue, malaise, weight loss, persistent cough, oxygen deprivation, shortness of breath, submandibular and cervical lymph node enlargement

21
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What are chronic granulomatous ?

areas of necrosis surrounded by macrophages, multinucleate giant cells and lymphocytes

22
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What’s actinomycosis?

an infection caused by a filamentous bacterium: Acintomyces israelli

23
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Where do draining abscesses due to Actinomycosis usually originate from?

mandible

24
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Another name for Actinomycosis?

lumpy jaw

25
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Treatment for Actinomycosis?

long term - high dose antibiotics

26
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What bacteria is Syphillis caused by?

Treponema Pallidum (a spirochete)

27
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Primary stage of Syphillis caused what kind od symptoms?

flu like

28
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How is Syphillis spread?

direct contact, auto inoculation, sexual contact, transfusion

29
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What’s an autoinoculation

touching a sore and then touching an opening in the epidermis

30
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What’s the secondary stage of Syphilis?

diffuse eruptions occur on skin and mucous membranes

31
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What are mucous patches?

associated with the secondary stage of Syphilis, most infectious

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What’s the tertiary stage of Syphilis?

chiefly involves the destruction of the cardiovascular system and the nervous system

33
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What’s the Gumma appear in Syphilis?

a firm mass, non infectious, a destructive lesion that can result n perforation of palate bone

34
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What’s congenital syphilis?

T. Pallidum can cross the placenta and enter the fetal circulation

35
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What are two dental abnormalities seen associated with congenital Syhpilis?

mulberry molars and hutchnsons incisors

36
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What’s treatment of Syphlis?

penicillin

37
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What is Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis?

a painful erythematous gingivitis with necrosis of interdental papillae

38
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What is NUG caused by?

a fusiform bacillus and a spirochete

39
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what is NUG associated with?

decreased resistance to infection and immunosupression

40
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What might you see intramurally in someone with NUG?

cratering of interdental papillae and sighing of necrotic tissue

41
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Treatment of someone with NUG

gentle, antibiotics if fever present

42
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What’s pericoronitits?

inflammation around the crown of a partially erupted impacted tooth

43
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What’s acute Osteomyelitis?

acute inflammation of the bone and bone marrow

44
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What’s the most common reason acute osteomyelitis occurs?

chronic periodical absecc

45
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What’s the diagnosis of acute osteomyelitis?

nonviable bone, necrotic debris, acute inflammation and bacterial colonies in marrow spaces

46
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treatment of acute osteomyelitis?

drainage of purulent exudate and antibiotics

47
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What’s chronic osteomyelitis?

a long standing inflammation of bone, painful and swollen

48
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what can be seen on an x ray when chronic osteomyelitis is present?

a diffuse and irregular radiolucency that can eventually become opaque

49
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treatment of chronic osteomyelitis?

decried, antibiotics, hyperbaric oxygen

50
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What does candida albicans mostly occur from?

dentures and improper denture care

51
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how can Candida albicans be identified?

scarping lesion

52
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what’s pseudomembranous candidacies?

a white curdle material is present on the mucosal surface, mucosa is erythematous underneath

53
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what might a patient complain of with Psuedomembranous Candidiasis?

a burning sensation and or a metallic taste

54
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what’s erythematous candidiasis?

painful, can be localized or generalized

55
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What’s the most common type of candidiasis?

Denture Stomatitis (Chronic Atrophic Candidiasis)

56
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Diagnosis of Denture Stomatitis?

can be asymptomatic as client associates discomfort with poor denture fit

57
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Where is denture stomatitis most commonly found?

on palate and maxillary alveolar ridge

58
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What’s Chronic Hyperplastic Candidiasis (Candidal Leukoplakia)

a white lesion that does not wipe off, responds to antifungals

59
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What’s angular cheilitits?

erythema or fissuring at the labial commissures, most commonly from candida

60
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What’s Chronic Mucotaneous Candidiasis?

a severe form that usually occurs in patients who are severely immunocompromised

61
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What’s Median Rhomboid Glossitis?

an erythematous, often rhomboid shaped, flat to raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue

62
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diagnosis of Median Rhomboid Glossitis

a mucosal smear is obtained and sent to the laboratory for staining and examination

63
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Oral lesions may be caused by ____ _____ ________ such as histoplasmosis, coccidiomycosis, blastomycosis and crptococcis

deep fungal infections

64
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what do all deep fungal infections alll involve?

the lungs

65
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clients who are immunosuppressed or suffering from any type of COPD should be assessed before _______ _______ _________ are used during debridement

aerosol generating procedures

66
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how is a diagnosis of deep fungal infections made?

made by biopsy and microscopic examination

67
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What’s mucormycosis?

rare fungal infection

68
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What’s aspergillosis?

rare fungal infection

69
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Always refer to oral surgeon and MD once suspected _____ is noted due to ________ _____

HPV, malignancy risk

70
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What’s Verruca Vulgaris

common wart, cauliflower like appearance

71
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how is a Verruca Vulgaris diagnosis?

biopsy and examination

72
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What’s Condyloma Acuminatum?

a benign papillary lesion caused by a papillomavirus

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whats treatment for Condyloma Acuminatum?

conservative surgical excision and recurrence is common

74
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What’s Multifocal Epithelial Hyperplasia (Heck Disease)

characterized by the presence of multiple whitish/pale pink nodules distributed throughout oral mucosa

75
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who is multifocal epithelial hyperplasia most common in?

children

76
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What’s the initial infection like with Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis?

painful, erythematous, and swollen gingiva, multiple tiny vesicles, vermillion borders and oral mucosa

77
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Where is the most common spot for recurrent herpes simplex infection?

herpes labials

78
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What kind of symptoms might patient have before a cold sore appears?

prodromal signs

79
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What are the 2 Epstein Barr virus infections?

infectious mono and hairy leukoplakia

80
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What does Hairy Leukoplakia associated with Epstein bar look like?

an irregular, corrugated, white lesion most commonly occurring on lateral border of the tongue

81
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what is the coxsackievirus infections transmitted by?

fecal-oral contamination, saliva, respiratory droplets

82
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three distinctive oral lesions of coxsackievirus infection?

herpangina, hand-foot and mouth disease, acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

83
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What is Herpangina characterized by?

malaise, dysphagia (trouble swallowing), vesicles on the soft palate, red pharyngitis (resolves in 1 week)

84
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what is acute lymphonodular pharyngitis characterized by?

fever, sore throat and mild headache, hyperplasticity lymphoid tissue of the soft palate or tonsillar pillars appear yellowish

85
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What might you see intramurally with measles?

koplik spots

86
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what are Koplik spots?

small erythematous macule may occur in the oral cavity, blueish colour

87
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what is mumps?

a viral infection of the salivary glands

88
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HIV/AIDS infects cells of the immune system, particularly ________

CD4 T-helper lymphocytes

89
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in HIV-positive partners, ______, generally signals the beginning of progressively sever immunodeficiency

thrush/oral candidiasis

90
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Shingles generally follows the usual pattern when it occurs in a person who is?

HIV positive

91
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What is Kaposi Sarcoma?

an opportunistic neoplasm that may occur in patients with HIV infections, dark purple lesion

92
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diagnosis for Kaposi sarcoma

biopsy

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treatment of Kaposi Sarcoma?

surgical exo, radiation tx, chemotherapy

94
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What is Lymphoma associated with?

HIV

95
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tx of Lymphoma?

chemotherapeutic drugs

96
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2 unusual forms of perio/gingiviits may develop in pts with HIV

Linear gingival erythema and necrotizing ulcerative periodonitits

97
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three characteristics of Linear Gingival Erythema (LGE)

spontaneous bleeding, petechiae-like lesions on attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa, sandlike erythema of the gingiva that does NOT responded to therapy

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LGE occurs independently of ___________

oral hygiene status

99
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whats necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP)

characterized by intense erythema and extremely rapid bone loss

100
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a devrease in platelets may occasionally be seen in patients with ___

HIV