exam 3 AHI

What is the primary pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

Autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells.

What characterizes the pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

Insulin resistance combined with a relative insulin deficiency.

Which diagnostic test reflects the average blood glucose level over the preceding 2 to 3 months?

Glycosylated hemoglobin ($A1C$).

What is the clinical significance of an elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate ($ESR$) in musculoskeletal care?

It indicates the presence of non-specific inflammation in the body.

Which laboratory marker is a more sensitive indicator of acute inflammation than the $ESR$?

C-reactive protein ($CRP$).

What is a common clinical manifestation of a hip fracture regarding the affected extremity's position?

The leg is shortened and externally rotated.

What is the hallmark symptom of compartment syndrome that is not relieved by traditional measures?

Unrelieved, severe pain that is out of proportion to the injury.

Which triad of symptoms is characteristic of Fat Embolism Syndrome ($FES$)?

Respiratory distress, neurological mental status changes, and petechial rash.

How does diabetes mellitus typically impact the process of wound healing?

It delays healing due to impaired perfusion and high glucose levels promoting infection.

What is the priority nursing instruction for a diabetic patient regarding insulin use on 'sick days'?

Continue taking insulin even if unable to eat, as illness increases blood glucose.

What is the primary goal of neurovascular assessments after a fracture?

To detect early signs of impaired perfusion or nerve damage.

Which condition is defined as a chronic bone infection resulting in inflammatory destruction?

Osteomyelitis.

What is the primary risk factor for developing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

Estrogen deficiency.

Which complication of diabetes is characterized by sweating, tremors, and confusion?

Hypoglycemia.

In the context of upper GI function, what is the purpose of the gastric mucosal barrier?

To protect the stomach lining from autodigestion by acid and pepsin.

What is the primary cause of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease ($GERD$)?

Inappropriate relaxation or weakness of the lower esophageal sphincter ($LES$).

Which upper GI disorder is characterized by erosions in the lining of the stomach or duodenum?

Peptic Ulcer Disease ($PUD$).

What is the term for inflammation of the oral mucosa, often a side effect of chemotherapy?

Stomatitis.

What is a 'red flag' symptom of oral cancer that requires urgent medical follow-up?

A non-healing sore or lesion that lasts longer than two weeks.

Which functional GI disorder is characterized by abdominal pain and altered bowel habits without structural damage?

Irritable Bowel Syndrome ($IBS$).

What dietary modification is often recommended to manage symptoms of $IBS$?

Increasing dietary fiber and avoiding trigger foods.

Which assessment finding suggests a perforated peptic ulcer?

A rigid, board-like abdomen with severe pain.

In patients with GI disorders, what does a assessment of 'perfusion' primarily involve?

Checking skin color, temperature, and capillary refill for signs of shock or bleeding.

What is the intended outcome of prescribing Proton Pump Inhibitors ($PPIs$) for $GERD$?

To decrease the production of gastric acid.

Which laboratory test counts the number of oxygen-carrying proteins in the blood?

Hemoglobin ($Hgb$).

What does a high White Blood Cell ($WBC$) count typically indicate in a patient with osteomyelitis?

An active systemic infection.

What is the primary patient education point regarding the timing of oral iron supplements?

Take the supplement on an empty stomach to maximize absorption.

Which substance should be consumed with oral iron to enhance its absorption?

Vitamin C or orange juice.

What is the underlying cause of Sickle Cell Disease?

A genetic mutation causing the production of abnormal hemoglobin S ($HgbS$).

What are the two most critical nursing priorities during a Sickle Cell Crisis?

Hydration and oxygenation.

How does Leukemia differ from Lymphoma in its origin?

Leukemia begins in the bone marrow, while Lymphoma begins in the lymphatic system.

What is the primary purpose of the TNM staging system in oncology?

To determine the extent and severity of cancer spread.

In TNM staging, what does the 'M' stand for?

Distant metastasis.

What is the most significant side effect of chemotherapy related to the bone marrow?

Myelosuppression (reduction in blood cell production).

Which 'CAUTION' sign of cancer refers to a change in bladder or bowel habits?

The 'C' in the CAUTION acronym.

What is the mandatory first step before starting a blood transfusion to ensure patient safety?

Verifying the patient and blood component with a second qualified nurse.

What is the first nursing intervention if a patient develops chills and fever during a blood transfusion?

Immediately stop the transfusion.

Why is mobility encouraged shortly after hip surgery?

To prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis ($DVT$) and pneumonia.

Which lab value measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume?

Hematocrit ($Hct$).

What skin integrity risk is specifically associated with external radiation therapy?

Radiation dermatitis or skin desquamation.

In the Rome criteria for $IBS$, abdominal pain must be related to what activity?

Defecation.

What is the significance of 'leukoplakia' in an oral assessment?

It is a white, precancerous lesion that requires monitoring or biopsy.

Which medication category is the first-line treatment for managing pain in musculoskeletal injuries?

Analgesics, such as $NSAIDs$ or opioids.

What is the purpose of monitoring 'sick day rules' for a diabetic patient?

To prevent the development of diabetic ketoacidosis ($DKA$) during illness.

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of anemia?

Decreased hemoglobin ($Hgb$) and hematocrit ($Hct$) levels.

What does a platelet count below normal (thrombocytopenia) place the patient at risk for?

Spontaneous or excessive bleeding.

What is the recommended dietary fiber intake goal for a patient with $IBS$?

Approximately $25$ to $35$ grams per day.

What is the primary symptom of oral stomatitis?

Painful inflammation and ulceration of the mouth.

Which procedure is used to visualize the upper GI tract and diagnose peptic ulcers?

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy ($EGD$).

What is a characteristic finding of chronic gastritis related to Vitamin $B_{12}$?

Pernicious anemia due to the loss of intrinsic factor.

In the context of cancer, what does 'grading' refer to?

The degree of cell differentiation and how much they resemble the parent tissue.

How long must a nurse remain with a patient after starting a blood transfusion?

For the first $15$ minutes of the infusion.

Which intervention helps prevent falls in patients with musculoskeletal disorders?

Using assistive devices and ensuring the environment is free of clutter.

What is the primary physiological trigger for sickling in Sickle Cell Disease?

Low oxygen tension (hypoxia).

What is the clinical definition of 'alopecia' as a side effect of chemotherapy?

Hair loss.

Which term describes a life-threatening complication of hip fractures involving high pressure in a muscle compartment?

Compartment Syndrome.

What is the primary action of the oral diabetic medication Metformin?

It reduces glucose production by the liver and improves insulin sensitivity.

Which diagnostic finding is expected in a patient with a hip fracture during a physical exam?

Inability to bear weight on the affected limb.

What type of diet is typically recommended for a patient with $GERD$?

Low-fat, small frequent meals, and avoidance of caffeine/alcohol.

What is the most common clinical manifestation of Gastritis?

Epigastric tenderness and nausea.

What does the 'T' in TNM staging describe?

The size and invasiveness of the primary tumor.

Which hematologic value is used to monitor the risk of infection in oncology patients?

Absolute Neutrophil Count ($ANC$) or total $WBC$.

Which clinical manifestation is common in both leukemia and lymphoma?

Painless lymph node enlargement or frequent infections.

What is the focus of primary cancer prevention?

Reducing the risks through lifestyle changes like smoking cessation and sun protection.

What is the 'Rule of 15' used for in diabetes management?

Treating hypoglycemia with $15$ grams of carbs and rechecking glucose in $15$ minutes.

Which musculoskeletal condition is characterized by a 'porous bone' and increased fracture risk?

Osteoporosis.

What is the main risk of untreated osteomyelitis?

Bone necrosis (sequestrum) and systemic sepsis.

Which GI condition requires lifestyle modifications such as sleeping with the head of the bed elevated?

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease ($GERD$).

What is the primary nursing concern when a patient has a platelet count below $50,000/mm^3$?

Injury and bleeding prevention.

Which specific complication follows the release of fat globules from the bone marrow after a fracture?

Fat Embolism Syndrome.

What is the primary goal of palliative cancer treatment?

To relieve symptoms and improve quality of life rather than curing the disease.

Which assessment finding is a priority to report in a post-operative hip surgery patient?

A new onset of confusion or restlessness.

What is a common trigger for an $IBS$ flare-up?

Emotional stress.

Which medication is typically avoided in patients with Peptic Ulcer Disease because it irritates the mucosa?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ($NSAIDs$).

What is the significance of 'petechiae' in a patient with a long bone fracture?

It is a late and specific sign of Fat Embolism Syndrome.

What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with mucositis (stomatitis)?

Providing frequent oral rinses with saline or sodium bicarbonate.