Fetal Chest, Abdomen, Pelvis

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76 Terms

1
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List 5 general parameters/structures/aspects that we evaluate on sonogram of the fetal chest

  • Chest size/shape

  • Heart position/axis

  • Fetal ribs

  • Lung echo texture

  • Diaphragm

2
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Describe normal sonographic appearance of the fetal ribs and thorax.

  • Fetal ribs = ossification (echogenic) + length should wrap around half way around chest

  • Thorax = symmetricaly bell shaped with ribs forming the lateral margins; clavicles forms upper margin, diaphragm forms lower margin

3
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What is the TC:AC ratio?  Where is the TC measurement obtained? 

  • TC = AC ; indirect assessment of fetal lung volume

  • Measured @ level of 4 heart chamber

4
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Describe the normal fetal cardiac position and normal axis within the fetal chest

  • Midline + left of chest

  • Apex point towards spleen (left side)

  • Fetal cardiac axis is measured by the angle formed between intraventricular septum and the line perpendicular to the spine; 22-75 degrees

5
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What is the normal fetal lung echogenicity, in comparison to the fetal liver, in early and late gestation?

  • Early gestation = similar/ slightly less echogenic compared to liver

  • Late gestation = echogenic compared to liver

6
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The fetal heart occupies approximately what portion of the fetal chest?

  • 1/3 thoracic volume on transverse

7
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List 4 (listed 5) “general” types of abnormalities in the thorax, that we can see on ultrasound

  • Chest mass

  • Pleural effusion

  • Lung abnormalities; pulmonary hypoplasia

  • Congential diaphragmatic hernia

  • Heart defects

8
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Define pulmonary hypoplasia. List 6 potential causes of pulmonary hypoplasia

  • Small & inadequately developed lungs; reduction in lung volume due to prolonged oligohydramnios or small thoracic cavity

  • Large mass on neck or sacrum, severe prolonged oligohydramnios, poor prognosis, congenital diaphragmatic hernia (compressed lungs), abdominal mass, chest mass, renal abnormalities

9
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List sonographic signs of pulmonary hypoplasia (list 3)

  • Small chest to abdomen (bell-shaped)

  • Prominent heart (>1/3 of chest)

  • Absence of fetal breathing movement in setting of oligohydramnios due to PROM

10
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What is the sonographic sign given to the “small chest” seen in pulmonary hypoplasia?

  • Concave or bell-shaped thorax

11
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Describe pulmonary artery Doppler to determine pulmonary hypoplasia

  • Detect changes in pulmonary artery waveforms; predict pulmonary hypoplasia

  • PSV in proximal artery flow velocity reduced in hypoplasia

12
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What is “isolated” hydrothorax/ pleural effusion?

  • Accumulation of fluid within pleural cavity that appears as isolated lesion or multiple fetal anomalies

13
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What is “secondary” hydrothorax/pleural effusion? List 5 abnormalities associated with it

  • Bulid-up fluid in pleural space associated with another underlying condition rather than primary problem of pleura itself

  • Associated with = Turner’s syndrome, Trisomy 21, congestive heart failure, hamartoma, infection, genetic syndromes, high output failure in fetus

14
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What is the usual progression of hydrothorax?

  • Effusions conforms to thoracic cavity + compress lung tissue

  • Lung appears to float in fluid; compression of lung parenchyma may cause pulmonary hypoplasia

15
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List 5 abnormalities associated with pleural effusions in the fetus

  • Infection

  • Trisomy 21

  • Cystic CPAM

  • Congential diaphragmatic hernia

  • Hydrop fetails

  • Congenital heart disease

16
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Pleural effusions in the fetus have the highest mortality rate when what 3 conditions are present?

  • Lung hypoplasia

  • Hydrops

  • Diagnosed at early gestational age

17
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Describe ultrasound’s role in the evaluation of fetal chest fluid

  • Evaluate fetal chest to see fluid collection, location, and if its bilateral/unilateral

18
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List 6 causes of fetal ascites

  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

  • Urinary perforation

  • Hydrops, infections

  • Tumors

  • Bowel perforation

  • Heart failure

19
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List 3 most common chest masses diagnosed on ultrasound prenatally

  • Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

  • Congenital pulmonary airway malformation

  • Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

  • Bronchopulmonary sequestration

20
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CDH is most often located on what side and what position, involving what foramen?

  • Side = left side

  • Position = posterolateral

  • Foramen = foramen of Bochdalek

21
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What is a less common site for CDH and the name of that specific location?

  • Side = right side

  • Position = anterior

  • Foramen = foramen of Morgagni

22
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List 4 sonographic findings associated with CDH.  Which is the key sonographic feature

  • Fetal stomach displaced

  • Abdominal circumference appears smaller

  • Heart shifts to right side

  • Bowel peristalsis in thoracic cavity

  • Polyhydramnios

23
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Describe lung:head ratio and its significance to diagnosis of pulmonary hypoplasia

  • Measure lung behind heart

  • Normal measurement = <2 mm (1.4 - 2 = good prognosis, <1.0 = poor prognosis)

24
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List 2 factors affecting prognosis of CDH.

  • Size of contralateral lung

  • Size of herniated mass

25
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Define CAM.  Is it usually bilateral or unilateral?

  • Rare lung abnormality; part of fetal lung develops cystic or solid masses instead of normal lung tissue

  • Unilateral (bilateral = rare but more severe)

26
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What are the 3 types of CAM, describe their sonographic appearances

  • Type I = replace normal lung tissue, can compress heart, alter hemodynamics, cause hydrops, cystic adenomatoid malformation, larger cyst; > 2 cm

  • Type II = multiple small cysts; often < 1 cm, echogenic

  • Type III = large, bulky, non-cystic lesion, solid mass, echogenic-dense, and resembles normal lung

27
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List 5 differentials for CAM

  • Pleural effusion

  • Mediastinal teratoma

  • Bronchopulmonary sequestration

  • Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

  • Bronchial cysts

28
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Define bronchopulmonary sequestration and “intralobar vs. extralobar”.  What is the key sonographic feature to differentiate this entity from CAM?

  • Rare lung condition of non-functioning lung tissue develops without connection to normal airway + receives own blood supply from systemic circulation

  • Intralobar = located within normal lung tissue with no separate pleural covering; diagnosed later in childhood/adulthood with recurrent lung infections

  • Extralobar = located outside of normal lung with own pleural covering; diagnosed in infancy

  • Key sonographic feature: own systemic blood supply, unlike CAM.

29
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List 4 differentials for BPS

  • Congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)

  • Bronchial atresia

  • Lobar emphysema

  • CDH

  • CAAM

  • Persistent pneumonia

30
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 Describe CHAOS, and what are the associated findings?

  • Congenital High Airway Obstruction Syndrome (CHAOS) = respiratory distress due to obstruction of the fetal airway; lungs becomes hyperexpanded & diaphragms is inverted or flattened

  • Associated findings: laryngeal atresia, laryngeal or tracheal webs, laryngeal cysts, tracheal atresia, subglottic stenosis, and laryngeal or tracheal agenesis

31
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When can the fetal esophagus be visualized on sonography (EV)? Where is the transducer placed to visualize the esophagus?

  • 12 - 16 weeks (EV)

  • Coronal view of fetus’s neck and chest; sagittal is secondary view

32
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Esophageal atresia is most commonly associated with what syndrome?  List 3 sonographic findings associated with esophageal atresia

  • Associated = tracheoesophageal fistula & trisomy 18

  • Sono findings = absent/small stomach, polyhydramnios, and esophageal pouching

33
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The fetal stomach can be “reliably” visualized when?

  • 13 weeks

34
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List 5 possible causes for non-visualization of the fetal stomach on sonogram.  List 3 abnormalities that can result in abnormal location of the stomach

  • Possible causes = Physiological emptying, disorders affecting swallowing, esophageal obstruction, severe oligohydramnios or hydramnios, tumors in the esophagus/pharynx/ mediastinum, and congenital diaphragmatic hernia

  • Abnormal location causes = diaphragmatic hernia, situs abnormalities, and abdominal wall defects (gastroschisis or omphalocele)

35
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Define duodenal atresia.  List the primary sonographic features that are associated.  What syndrome is it associated?

  • Blockage of duodenal lumen by membrane that prohibits passage of swallowed amniotic fluid

  • Sono features = echogenic-free stomach and duodenum found in upper fetal abdomen w/ communication (double bubble sign)

  • Double bubble sign associated w/ Down syndrome

  • Associated w/ = Trisomy 21, cardiovascular anomalies, genitourinary anomalies, & gastrointestinal abnormalitites

36
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What is the normal size for fetal small bowel?  List 5 causes of dilatation of the fetal small bowel

  • Normal size: >/= 6mm; >7mm = abnormal

  • Causes = Atresia, volvulus, malrotation, peritoneal bands, & cystic fibrosis

37
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List 5 abnormalities associated with echogenic small bowel.

  • Fetal ingestion of blood

  • Trisomy 21

  • Hypoperistalsis

  • Cytomegalovirus

  • Primary bowel abnormalities

  • Severe growth restriction

  • Decreased water content

38
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List 5 differentials for cystic structures in the fetal abdomen.

  • Ovarian cyst

  • Bowel obstructions

  • Hirshsprung

  • Meckel’s diverticulum

  • Meconium cyst

39
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Describe Meckel Syndrome

  • Rare, severe, and lethal autosomal recessive disorder charaterized by combination of multiple cysts on kidneys, occipital encephalocele, and polydactyly

40
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List 3 sonographic findings associated with anal atresia. Anal atresia can be associated with what anomalies?

  • Sono findings = dilated distal bowel segments, absent hypoechoic anal sphincter, and echogenic anal mucosa (“target sign”)

  • Associated w/ = VACTERAL (vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheoesophageal fistula, renal, and limb)

41
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 Describe gastroschisis and typical sonographic findings.  What is the most common side involved?  What structures are usually protruding?

  • Gastroschisis = periumbilical defect; located near right side of the umbilicus

    • Opening in layers of abdominal wall with herniation of bowel (mostly stomach and genitourinary organs but rarely the liver)

  • Sono findings = free-floating loops of bowel in amniotic fluid, defect in the abdominal wall (usually right side of umbilicus), normal umbilical cord insertion, dilated/thickened bowel loops, and polyhydramnios

  • Protrudes = small intestines, (occasionally) stomach or colon, and liver (rarely); herniation of the abdominal wall

42
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Describe similarities and differences between gastroschisis and omphalocele. Describe omphalocele and classic sonographic findings

  • Omphalocele = protruding mass; smooth + rounded contour & contained in a peritoneal membrane

  • Gastroschisis = protruding mass; irregular contour + extruded abdominal content where bowel loops not contained by a membrane

  • Sono findings = midline abdominal wall defect, herniated bowel/abdominal organs surrounded by a membrane

    • Higher risk chromosome abnormalities: omphaloceles > gastrochisis

43
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List 4 anomalies associated with omphalocele

  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

  • Penology of Cantrell

  • Cardiac anomalies

  • Trisomy 13 and 18

44
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Beckwith-Wiedeman syndrome includes what specific abnormalities?

  • Macroglossia

  • Hemi-hypertrophy

  • Wilm’s tumor

  • Omphalocele

  • Organomegaly

    • Visceromegaly

    • Embryonal tumors

    • Neonatal hypoglycemia

    • Renal abnormalities

45
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Umbilical cord cyst could be confused with?

  • Warton’s jelly abnormalities

  • Amniotic inclusion cysts

  • Neoplasms

  • Omphalomesenteric duct cysts

  • Vascular anomalies

  • Allantoic cysts

46
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 List 3 examples of the midline disruption sequence anomaly

  • Limb-body wall complex

  • Pentalogy of Cantrell

  • Cloacal exstrophy

47
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 List 4 sonographic findings associated with Pentology of Cantrell

  • Omphalocele

  • Ectopia cordis

  • Diaphragmatic hernia

  • Ectopia cordis

48
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Describe limb-body wall complex

  • Aka. body stalk anomaly

  • Rare + fatal birth defect resulting combination of congenital malformations such as body wall defects, limb deformities, and craniofacial abnormalities resulting form defective embryonic folding

49
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 List 5 sonographic findings associated with bladder exstrophy.  What is OEIS?

  • Infraumbilical anterior wall

  • Echogenic soft tissue mass

  • NTD

  • Absent bladder

  • Malformation of genitalia

  • Omphalocele, bladder exstrophy, imperforate anus, spinal anomalies

50
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The bladder is reliably seen at what number of weeks

12-13 weeks

51
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Fetal urine production plays a major role after how many weeks? What is normal AFI and AFV?  When is fetal bladder filling seen on ultrasound.

  • Production of urine = as soon as 9th week; reliable at 12-13 weeks

  • After 16th week = amniotic fluid

  • Normal AFI & AFV = 5-25cm; AFV/MVP = 2-8cm

  • Seen = 2nd & 3rd trimester; empty/refill every 25-30 mins

52
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What 2 structures can be seen with Doppler on either side of the fetal bladder?

  • 2 umbilical arteries

53
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When are kidneys visualized on ultrasound, as early as, reliably by?

  • Seen early as 11 weeks (EV) or 12 weeks (TA)

  • Reliable = 14-16 weeks

54
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What sonographic information do we want to provide when evaluating the urinary tract (what questions do we answer) list 7

  • Bladder appearance and size

  • Bladder presence

  • How the kidney is positioned

  • Appearance

  • Presented on both either one or both kidneys

  • Valuate the collecting system for any dilation (one or both sides)

  • Check for gender since some are more common in females or males

55
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The fetal kidneys are normally what fraction (portion) of the AC?

  • 1/3 of AC

56
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 Before 20 weeks the renal pelvis should not be greater that ___mm?

  • 4mm

57
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List 4 sonographic findings associated with bilateral renal agenesis

  • Nonvisualization of the kidneys

  • Severe oligohydramnios

  • Flattened appearance of the adrenal gland on sagittal

  • Bell-shaped thorax

58
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Describe Potter’s Syndrome and associated sonographic findings. List 3 other anomalies associated with Potter’s.  List 3 technical limitations when renal agenesis is present.

  • Aka. Potter sequence

  • Changes neonate's physical appearance due to oligohydramnios; caused by kidney problems, leading to underdeveloped lungs and other organ issues

  • Associated anomalies = renal agenesis, mermaid syndrome, musculoskeletal anomalies, GI and cardiovascular anomalies

  • Technical limitations = severe oligohydramnios, urachal diverticulum, and fetal bowel/adrenals that can mimic kidneys

59
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The fetal kidneys initially develop where?  List 2 other renal developmental anomalies

  • Initially develops in pelvis but ascends by 11th week

  • Other anomalies = unilateral renal agenesis, horseshoe kidneys, and cross-fused

60
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What is the most common renal abnormality seen in the fetal kidney?  What is the most common site for this abnormality?

  • Fetal hydronephrosis

  • Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

61
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 What is normal pyelectasis >20 weeks?

  • 5-7mm

62
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Describe normal measurements of pyelectasis in third trimester

  • <7 mm

63
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List 6 potential causes of congenital fetal urinary obstruction

  • Posterior urethral valves

  • Ureteropelvic junction obstruction

  • Ureterovesical junction obstruction

  • Prune belly syndrome

  • Multicystic dysplastic kidney

  • Bladder exstrophy

64
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Discuss the most common postnatal cause of infants with obstruction

  • UPJ

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 What is the 2nd most common cause of obstruction?

  • UVJ

66
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 Describe “duplication” of the kidney

  • Congenital condition where kidney has 2 separate non-communicating renal pelvis; potentially 2 ureters instead of 1

67
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What is “BOO”, what is the classic sonographic finding associated with it?

  • Bladder outlet obstruction; blockage at base of bladder that reduces or prevents urine flow into urethra (urine backup + other complications)

  • Sono findings = more common in males, “keyhole” sign, posterior urethral valve, urethral atresia, caudal regression

68
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List 9 possible sonographic characteristics of urinary tract abnormalities that can be seen on ultrasound

  • Pelvic dilation of greater than 7mm

  • Enlarged bladder

  • Small kidneys

  • Thickening of pelvis or urethral wall

  • Calyceal dilation

  • Urethral dilation of greater than 3mm

  • Lack of corticomedullary differentiation

69
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Discuss 3 renal cystic disease classifications and what disease processes are associated with each

  • Dysplastic cysts = isolated multicystic dysplastic kidney and dysplastic kidney resulting from early severe obstruction; associated with MCDK and dysplastic early obstruction

  • Hereditary cysts = polycystic kidney disease and inherited syndromes; associated with ARPKD and ADPKD

  • Nondysplastic/nonhereditary cysts = associated with simple cysts, multilocular cysts, and medullary sponge kidneys

70
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Describe sonographic findings associated with IPKD

  • Bilaterally enlarged kidneys

  • Increased renal echogenicity

  • Loss of corticomedullary differentiation

  • Oligohydramnios

  • Absent or small bladder

  • Compressed thorax (can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia)

71
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Meckel (Meckel Gruber) syndrome can include what three abnormalities?

  • Polydactyly

  • Encephalocele

  • Large echogenic kidney

  • MCDK

72
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 MCDK can be associated with what abnormalities on the contralateral side?  Describe a potential pitfall when evaluating renal cystic disease

  • Abnormalities = UPJ, MCDK, renal agenesis

  • Pitfall = mistaking normal fetal kidney appearance for pathology or misidentifying other structures as cystic kidneys

    • Common pitfalls = hyperechoic kidneys in 2nd trimester, transient fetal pyelectasis, and adrenal gland mimics dysplastic kidneys

73
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Fetal gender can be determined by what number of weeks?

  • 16-20 weeks

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 List 3 differentials for cystic masses in the female fetus?

  • Mesenteric cysts

  • Ovarian cysts

  • Enteric duplication cysts

  • Urachal cysts

  • Hydrometrocolpos

75
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The fetal adrenal gland in 3rd trimester is approximately what % of the kidney length?

  • 48-66%

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List 4 potential masses of the adrenal gland

  • Adrenal adenomas

  • Pheochromocytomas

  • Adrenocortical carcinomas

  • Myelolipomas