CLS Resource ASCP Review

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Last updated 9:02 AM on 6/23/26
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142 Terms

1
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What test differentiates S. epi versus S. saprophyticus

coagulase

2
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What does S. aureus produce

hyaluronidase

3
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What bacteria is typically seen on medical devices (shunts)

s. epidermidis

4
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Is micrococcus oxidase positive or negative

positive

5
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What test differentiates enterococcus from group D strep

PYR

6
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Is S. agalactiae hippurate positive or negative

positive

7
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What does S. pneumo test positive for

bile solubility & Quelling

8
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S. viridans is commonly seen in

dental abscess

9
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S. pyogenes is commonly seen in

strep throat

10
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S. agalactiae is commonly seen in

newborn meningitis

11
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is strep catalase negative or positive

positive

12
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What is the main difference in bacillus sp. versus bacillus anthracis

motility

13
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How do you differentiate Listeria versus Corynebacterium

motility/bile esculin

14
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What is the difference between Erysipelothrix and Lactobacillus gardnerella

H2S

15
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Lysine - bacteria

E. cloacae

16
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what is MAC selective for

gram - bacilli

17
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The methyl red test is based on if the bacteria ferment mixed acids when given __ with a 48+ hour incubation with a pH of < 4.5

glucose

18
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Indole tip (indole + organisms)

Morgan the Vulgar ox ate E.coli on the indole Pasture with Ed

Morganella, Proteus vulgaris, E. coli, Pasturella, & Edwardsiella

19
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XLD agar is differential for

salmonella and shigella

20
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nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is another name for

V factor

21
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hemin is another name for

X factor

22
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N. gonorrhoeae should be plated immediately or transported with activated __ MTM 35C

charcoal

23
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H. aphrophilus is seen in

endocarditis

24
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H. ducreyi is seen in

genital ulcers

25
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HACEK organisms

(grouped together due to their slow growth)

Haemophilus

Actinobacillus

Cardiobacterium

Eikenella

Kingella

CEK are oxidase +

26
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Fast growth on MAC < 3 days, nitrate reduction

M. fortuitum

27
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Niacin +, nitrate reduction, rough colonies

M. tuberculosis

28
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Fort Chelonae was built fast on MAC

M. Fortuitum and M. chelonae grows fast on MAC

29
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Mari is 30 and has ulcers

M. marinum and M. ulcerans grow optimally at 30C

30
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Slow growing NTM whose colonies produce pigment when exposed to light

M. Marinum and M. kansasii

Take photos of Mary in Kansas

Photochromogens

31
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Slow growing NTM whose colonies become pigmented in the dark or light

M. szulgai, M. scrofulceum, M. gordonar, M. flavescens

SSG flav

Scotochromogens

32
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Codes for the Lewis enzyme

Le

33
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Codes for the secretor

Se

34
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Seen in non secretors (sese)

Le(a+b-)

35
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Seen in secretors (atleast 1 Se)

Le (a-b+)

36
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Seen in nonsecretors with NO lele

Le(a-b-)

37
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Benign and typically non significant

Pinch Mold Lewis

P, I, N, M, H, Lewis

cold antibodies

38
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Must be treated as clinically significant

Duke the Kidd is Rheal Warm

Duffy, Kell, Kidd, Rh

warm antibodies

39
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Dosage

Duffy & NoD the Rh Kidd has a bag of MNSs

Rich Kids Do Meth

40
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The 4 enzymes for enzyme treatment are: bromelin, ficin, papin, &

trypsin

41
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Enzymes enhanced during treatment

Rest In Peace (RhIP) Lewis the Kidd

Rh, I, P, Lewis, and Kidd

42
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Enzymes destroyed during treatment

Must Not Ssmell Duffy's destroyer

M, N, S, s, Fy

43
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Which of the potentiators used to decrease the zeta potential is most effective

PEG

44
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What is the main component of RBCs

hemoglobin

45
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hemoglobin consists of

4 globin chains and 4 heme groups

46
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Hemoglobin C is a __ amino acid replacement

lysine

47
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Order from left to right for citrate agar hemoglobin electrophoresis at 6.2

F, A, S, C

48
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What anemia is associated with hemoglobin H disease

microcytic, hypochromic

49
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What is the main hemoglobin seen in Beta Thalassemia Major

heme F

50
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αα/αα

normal

51
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--/αα, or -α/-α

mild microcytic/hypochromic anemia

52
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-α/αα

silent carrier

53
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--/-α

hemoglobin H disease

54
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--/--

Bart's hydrops fetalis

55
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helper T cells

CD4

56
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cytotoxic cells

CD8

57
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what cell becomes plasma cells?

B cells

58
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What deficiency is seen in pernicious anemia

B12

59
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What deficiency is seen in megaloblastic anemia

both

60
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Nuclear fragmented DNA, seen in post splenectomy, thalassemia, hemoglobinopathies, megaloblastic anemias

Howell Jolly bodies

<p>Howell Jolly bodies</p>
61
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precipitated hemoglobin visible in RBCs due to oxidation caused by G6PD deficiency, thalassemia

Heinz bodies

<p>Heinz bodies</p>
62
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What stain is needed to see Heinz bodies

supravital

63
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Iron granules seen in hemoglobinopathies, sideroblastic anemia, post-splenectomy

Pappenheimer bodies

<p>Pappenheimer bodies</p>
64
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What stain is required for Pappenheimer bodies

wright/prussian blue

65
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dots of residual RNA seen in lead poisioning

basophilic stippling

<p>basophilic stippling</p>
66
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mitotic spindle remnants

cabot rings

<p>cabot rings</p><p></p>
67
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Increased osmotic fragility test is seen in

hereditary spherocytosis

68
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Cause of a falsely increased ESR

a and b

3 multiple choice options

69
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Cause of a falsely decreased ESR

decreased room temp

70
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Giant lysosomal granules in WBC/platelets

fusion of primary and secondary granules

Albinism

Chediak Higashi syndrome

<p>Chediak Higashi syndrome</p>
71
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Neutrophil nucleus is hyposegmented

Heterozygous expression if dumbell shaped

Homozygous expression if peanut shaped

Pelger Huet

<p>Pelger Huet</p>
72
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Thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, large Dohle bodies

May Hegglin

<p>May Hegglin</p>
73
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Inclusions found in all WBCS of large primary granules that consist of precipitated mucopolysaccharides

alder reilly

<p>alder reilly</p><p></p>
74
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decreased LAP

CML

75
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increased LAP

leukemoid reactions

76
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LAP reference range

20-100

77
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M2 chromosomal abnormality

t(8:21)

78
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M3 (APL) chromosomal abnormality

t (15:17)

79
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FAB classification for AML

> 30% blasts

80
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WHO classification for AML

> 20 % blasts

1 multiple choice option

81
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CML chromosome abnormality

t (9:22)

2 multiple choice options

82
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3 criteria for polycythemia vera diagnosis

1. Hemoglobin of >16.5 for males and >16 for females

2. Bone marrow biopsy showing increased erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic cells

3.

Presence of JAK2 mutation

3 multiple choice options

83
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TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) differentiates __ from AML

ALL

3 multiple choice options

84
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Unique markers on B cells

CD19 & CD20

3 multiple choice options

85
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Mature T cells

CD4 & CD8

3 multiple choice options

86
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Unique to T cells

CD2, CD3, CD7

3 multiple choice options

87
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Mature B cells

surface immunoglobulin (Ig)

3 multiple choice options

88
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Hairy cell leukemia

TRAP +

2 multiple choice options

89
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Associated with HIV/EBV

Burkitt's Lymphoma/Leukemia

3 multiple choice options

90
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Reed Steinberg cells are diagnostic of

Hodgkin Lymphoma

3 multiple choice options

<p>Hodgkin Lymphoma</p><p>3 multiple choice options</p>
91
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Multiple myelomas 3 main characteristics

1. over proliferation of plasma cells in bone marrow

2. over production of monoclonal antibody

3. breaking down of __

bone

3 multiple choice options

92
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A patient has 18% retics with a hematocrit of 15%, what is the corrected retic count?

6%

3 multiple choice options

93
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Platelet binding and aggregation occur when GP1B combined with vWF bind to exposed __

collagen

3 multiple choice options

94
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vWF binds factor ___ in circulation

XIII

3 multiple choice options

95
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Hemophilia A

missing/defective factor XIII

1 multiple choice option

96
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Hemophilia B

missing/defective factor IX

1 multiple choice option

97
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Monitors extrinsic and common pathway

PT

2 multiple choice options

98
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Monitors intrinsic and common pathway

aPTT

2 multiple choice options

99
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If doing a mixing study fixes the problem

factor deficiency

1 multiple choice option

100
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If doing a mixing study does not fix the problem

Lupus

1 multiple choice option