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What test differentiates S. epi versus S. saprophyticus
coagulase
What does S. aureus produce
hyaluronidase
What bacteria is typically seen on medical devices (shunts)
s. epidermidis
Is micrococcus oxidase positive or negative
positive
What test differentiates enterococcus from group D strep
PYR
Is S. agalactiae hippurate positive or negative
positive
What does S. pneumo test positive for
bile solubility & Quelling
S. viridans is commonly seen in
dental abscess
S. pyogenes is commonly seen in
strep throat
S. agalactiae is commonly seen in
newborn meningitis
is strep catalase negative or positive
positive
What is the main difference in bacillus sp. versus bacillus anthracis
motility
How do you differentiate Listeria versus Corynebacterium
motility/bile esculin
What is the difference between Erysipelothrix and Lactobacillus gardnerella
H2S
Lysine - bacteria
E. cloacae
what is MAC selective for
gram - bacilli
The methyl red test is based on if the bacteria ferment mixed acids when given __ with a 48+ hour incubation with a pH of < 4.5
glucose
Indole tip (indole + organisms)
Morgan the Vulgar ox ate E.coli on the indole Pasture with Ed
Morganella, Proteus vulgaris, E. coli, Pasturella, & Edwardsiella
XLD agar is differential for
salmonella and shigella
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is another name for
V factor
hemin is another name for
X factor
N. gonorrhoeae should be plated immediately or transported with activated __ MTM 35C
charcoal
H. aphrophilus is seen in
endocarditis
H. ducreyi is seen in
genital ulcers
HACEK organisms
(grouped together due to their slow growth)
Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
CEK are oxidase +
Fast growth on MAC < 3 days, nitrate reduction
M. fortuitum
Niacin +, nitrate reduction, rough colonies
M. tuberculosis
Fort Chelonae was built fast on MAC
M. Fortuitum and M. chelonae grows fast on MAC
Mari is 30 and has ulcers
M. marinum and M. ulcerans grow optimally at 30C
Slow growing NTM whose colonies produce pigment when exposed to light
M. Marinum and M. kansasii
Take photos of Mary in Kansas
Photochromogens
Slow growing NTM whose colonies become pigmented in the dark or light
M. szulgai, M. scrofulceum, M. gordonar, M. flavescens
SSG flav
Scotochromogens
Codes for the Lewis enzyme
Le
Codes for the secretor
Se
Seen in non secretors (sese)
Le(a+b-)
Seen in secretors (atleast 1 Se)
Le (a-b+)
Seen in nonsecretors with NO lele
Le(a-b-)
Benign and typically non significant
Pinch Mold Lewis
P, I, N, M, H, Lewis
cold antibodies
Must be treated as clinically significant
Duke the Kidd is Rheal Warm
Duffy, Kell, Kidd, Rh
warm antibodies
Dosage
Duffy & NoD the Rh Kidd has a bag of MNSs
Rich Kids Do Meth
The 4 enzymes for enzyme treatment are: bromelin, ficin, papin, &
trypsin
Enzymes enhanced during treatment
Rest In Peace (RhIP) Lewis the Kidd
Rh, I, P, Lewis, and Kidd
Enzymes destroyed during treatment
Must Not Ssmell Duffy's destroyer
M, N, S, s, Fy
Which of the potentiators used to decrease the zeta potential is most effective
PEG
What is the main component of RBCs
hemoglobin
hemoglobin consists of
4 globin chains and 4 heme groups
Hemoglobin C is a __ amino acid replacement
lysine
Order from left to right for citrate agar hemoglobin electrophoresis at 6.2
F, A, S, C
What anemia is associated with hemoglobin H disease
microcytic, hypochromic
What is the main hemoglobin seen in Beta Thalassemia Major
heme F
αα/αα
normal
--/αα, or -α/-α
mild microcytic/hypochromic anemia
-α/αα
silent carrier
--/-α
hemoglobin H disease
--/--
Bart's hydrops fetalis
helper T cells
CD4
cytotoxic cells
CD8
what cell becomes plasma cells?
B cells
What deficiency is seen in pernicious anemia
B12
What deficiency is seen in megaloblastic anemia
both
Nuclear fragmented DNA, seen in post splenectomy, thalassemia, hemoglobinopathies, megaloblastic anemias
Howell Jolly bodies

precipitated hemoglobin visible in RBCs due to oxidation caused by G6PD deficiency, thalassemia
Heinz bodies

What stain is needed to see Heinz bodies
supravital
Iron granules seen in hemoglobinopathies, sideroblastic anemia, post-splenectomy
Pappenheimer bodies

What stain is required for Pappenheimer bodies
wright/prussian blue
dots of residual RNA seen in lead poisioning
basophilic stippling

mitotic spindle remnants
cabot rings

Increased osmotic fragility test is seen in
hereditary spherocytosis
Cause of a falsely increased ESR
a and b
3 multiple choice options
Cause of a falsely decreased ESR
decreased room temp
Giant lysosomal granules in WBC/platelets
fusion of primary and secondary granules
Albinism
Chediak Higashi syndrome

Neutrophil nucleus is hyposegmented
Heterozygous expression if dumbell shaped
Homozygous expression if peanut shaped
Pelger Huet

Thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, large Dohle bodies
May Hegglin

Inclusions found in all WBCS of large primary granules that consist of precipitated mucopolysaccharides
alder reilly

decreased LAP
CML
increased LAP
leukemoid reactions
LAP reference range
20-100
M2 chromosomal abnormality
t(8:21)
M3 (APL) chromosomal abnormality
t (15:17)
FAB classification for AML
> 30% blasts
WHO classification for AML
> 20 % blasts
1 multiple choice option
CML chromosome abnormality
t (9:22)
2 multiple choice options
3 criteria for polycythemia vera diagnosis
1. Hemoglobin of >16.5 for males and >16 for females
2. Bone marrow biopsy showing increased erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic cells
3.
Presence of JAK2 mutation
3 multiple choice options
TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) differentiates __ from AML
ALL
3 multiple choice options
Unique markers on B cells
CD19 & CD20
3 multiple choice options
Mature T cells
CD4 & CD8
3 multiple choice options
Unique to T cells
CD2, CD3, CD7
3 multiple choice options
Mature B cells
surface immunoglobulin (Ig)
3 multiple choice options
Hairy cell leukemia
TRAP +
2 multiple choice options
Associated with HIV/EBV
Burkitt's Lymphoma/Leukemia
3 multiple choice options
Reed Steinberg cells are diagnostic of
Hodgkin Lymphoma
3 multiple choice options

Multiple myelomas 3 main characteristics
1. over proliferation of plasma cells in bone marrow
2. over production of monoclonal antibody
3. breaking down of __
bone
3 multiple choice options
A patient has 18% retics with a hematocrit of 15%, what is the corrected retic count?
6%
3 multiple choice options
Platelet binding and aggregation occur when GP1B combined with vWF bind to exposed __
collagen
3 multiple choice options
vWF binds factor ___ in circulation
XIII
3 multiple choice options
Hemophilia A
missing/defective factor XIII
1 multiple choice option
Hemophilia B
missing/defective factor IX
1 multiple choice option
Monitors extrinsic and common pathway
PT
2 multiple choice options
Monitors intrinsic and common pathway
aPTT
2 multiple choice options
If doing a mixing study fixes the problem
factor deficiency
1 multiple choice option
If doing a mixing study does not fix the problem
Lupus
1 multiple choice option