NU553 Unit 4 Diabetes Mellitus Flashcards Advanced Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics Exam 2

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Last updated 12:04 AM on 6/28/26
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102 Terms

1
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Which skin finding in a child or adolescent is a red flag for insulin resistance?

Acanthosis nigricans

2
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What weight-loss goal is recommended to improve glucose tolerance in obese patients?

A loss of 5 percent to 7 percent of initial body weight

3
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What fasting plasma glucose level confirms diabetes when abnormal on two occasions?

126 milligrams per deciliter or higher

4
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What 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test result confirms diabetes?

200 milligrams per deciliter or higher

5
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What hemoglobin A1c range defines prediabetes?

5.7 percent to 6.4 percent

6
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What fasting glucose range defines impaired fasting glucose?

100 to 125 milligrams per deciliter

7
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What finding can confirm diabetes without repeat testing?

Random glucose of 200 milligrams per deciliter or higher with classic symptoms

8
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At what age should routine screening for type 2 diabetes usually begin in otherwise asymptomatic adults with risk factors?

Age 45 years

9
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At what body mass index should diabetes screening be considered in Asian patients?

23 kilograms per square meter or higher

10
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What is the hallmark pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Insulin resistance with progressive beta cell dysfunction

11
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Which type of diabetes is autoimmune?

Type 1 diabetes

12
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What is the underlying pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells causing absolute insulin deficiency

13
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Which oral diabetes drug is considered first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes?

Metformin

14
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What is the primary mechanism of action of metformin?

It decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity

15
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At what estimated glomerular filtration rate is metformin contraindicated?

Less than 30 milliliters per minute per 1.73 square meters

16
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What vitamin deficiency is associated with long-term metformin therapy?

Vitamin B12 deficiency

17
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What rare but serious complication is associated with metformin, especially in renal impairment?

Lactic acidosis

18
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Why should metformin be held around iodinated contrast exposure?

To reduce the risk of renal injury and lactic acidosis

19
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If a patient taking metformin develops sudden severe vomiting and diarrhea, what major complication should be considered?

Lactic acidosis

20
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A patient with type 2 diabetes has a hemoglobin A1c above 10 percent. What treatment approach is recommended?

Initiate insulin therapy

21
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A patient with type 2 diabetes has a hemoglobin A1c of 9.2 percent at diagnosis. What is an appropriate first-line consideration?

Metformin and lifestyle therapy

22
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What is the usual starting dose of basal insulin in type 2 diabetes?

10 units daily or 0.1 to 0.2 units per kilogram per day

23
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A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes weighs 80 kilograms and is starting basal insulin glargine. What is the most appropriate starting dose?

10 units daily or 0.1 to 0.2 units per kilogram per day

24
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How should basal insulin usually be titrated in type 2 diabetes until fasting glucose goals are reached?

Increase by 2 units every 3 days

25
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At about what basal insulin dose should prandial insulin be considered if hemoglobin A1c remains above target?

About 0.5 units per kilogram per day

26
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What is the usual starting total daily insulin dose in type 1 diabetes?

0.4 to 0.5 units per kilogram per day

27
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In a basal-bolus regimen for type 1 diabetes, what percentage of the total daily dose is usually basal insulin?

About 40 percent to 50 percent

28
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How is the sensitivity factor calculated using the 1800 rule?

1800 divided by the total daily insulin dose

29
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If the total daily insulin dose is 40 units, what is the sensitivity factor using the 1800 rule?

45 milligrams per deciliter

30
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What is the major electrolyte concern when giving insulin?

Hypokalemia

31
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When should patients with type 1 diabetes check urine ketones?

When blood glucose is persistently above 300 milligrams per deciliter or during illness

32
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During sick-day management, how often should patients with diabetes check blood glucose?

Every 2 to 4 hours

33
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During sick days, should patients usually stop their diabetes medications?

No. They should generally continue medications, increase fluids, and monitor glucose more often.

34
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What causes the Somogyi effect?

Rebound hyperglycemia after nocturnal hypoglycemia

35
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How does the Somogyi effect differ from the dawn phenomenon at 3 in the morning?

Somogyi shows hypoglycemia at 3 in the morning, while dawn phenomenon shows normal or high glucose

36
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What causes the dawn phenomenon?

Early morning hyperglycemia from overnight hormone surges

37
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Which basal insulins have no true peak?

Insulin glargine and insulin degludec

38
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Which insulin is considered ultra-long-acting and can last up to 42 hours?

Insulin degludec

39
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How long does insulin glargine usually last?

About 24 hours

40
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Why is neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin often given twice daily instead of once daily?

Its intermediate duration does not reliably provide 24-hour coverage

41
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When does regular human insulin usually peak?

About 2 to 4 hours after injection

42
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What is the onset of rapid-acting insulin analogs such as lispro or aspart?

About 15 to 30 minutes

43
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Which long-acting insulins should never be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe?

Insulin glargine, insulin detemir, and insulin degludec

44
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When using premixed insulin such as 70/30, how is the total daily dose commonly divided?

Two thirds in the morning and one third before dinner

45
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Afrezza is an inhaled form of which type of insulin?

Rapid-acting insulin

46
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Before starting inhaled insulin such as Afrezza, what test is required?

Spirometry

47
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Why are meglitinides useful in patients with irregular meal schedules?

They are taken only with meals

48
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If a patient skips a meal while taking repaglinide, what should they do with that dose?

Skip that dose

49
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Which diabetes medication should be taken with the first bite of each main meal?

Acarbose

50
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What is the major adherence-limiting adverse effect of acarbose and similar alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?

Gastrointestinal distress such as flatulence, bloating, and diarrhea

51
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Which diabetes medication should be avoided in patients with inflammatory bowel disease or colonic ulceration?

Acarbose

52
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What serious adverse effect has been reported with sitagliptin and other dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors?

Acute pancreatitis

53
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Which dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor does not require renal dose adjustment?

Linagliptin

54
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Which diabetes drug class is associated with euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis?

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

55
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A patient on empagliflozin has nausea, abdominal pain, elevated ketones, and only mildly elevated glucose. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis

56
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What common infections are associated with sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors?

Mycotic genital infections and urinary tract infections

57
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What is the mechanism of action of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors?

They block glucose reabsorption in the proximal renal tubule and increase urinary glucose excretion

58
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Which sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor is known to reduce hospitalization for heart failure?

Dapagliflozin

59
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Which sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitor reduces cardiovascular death in type 2 diabetes with established cardiovascular disease?

Empagliflozin

60
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Which diabetes drug class helps slow chronic kidney disease progression?

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

61
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Which two drug classes should be prioritized in type 2 diabetes with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease or chronic kidney disease?

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors and glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists

62
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Which sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors should be stopped if kidney function remains persistently below 45 milliliters per minute?

Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin

63
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Which diabetes drug class can increase potassium levels, especially in kidney dysfunction?

Sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

64
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What is the mechanism of action of glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists?

They increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppress glucagon, and slow gastric emptying

65
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Which injectable diabetes drug class is helpful when minimizing weight gain or promoting weight loss is important?

Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists

66
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Which diabetes drug class slows gastric emptying?

Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists

67
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Which diabetes drug class commonly causes weight loss and has cardiovascular benefit?

Glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists

68
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What boxed warning applies to glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists?

Risk related to medullary thyroid carcinoma and multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

69
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Which glucagon-like peptide 1 receptor agonists have shown cardiovascular risk reduction?

Liraglutide, semaglutide, and dulaglutide

70
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What drug class does pramlintide belong to?

Amylin analog

71
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Which injectable non-insulin agent is taken just before major meals and usually requires mealtime insulin to be reduced by 50 percent?

Pramlintide

72
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When starting pramlintide, by how much should mealtime insulin usually be reduced?

By 50 percent

73
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What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?

They stimulate insulin release by closing adenosine triphosphate-dependent potassium channels in beta cells

74
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What adverse effect is most commonly associated with sulfonylureas such as glyburide and glipizide?

Hypoglycemia

75
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Why do sulfonylureas cause hypoglycemia?

They stimulate insulin release regardless of glucose level

76
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Which second-generation sulfonylurea is sometimes considered safer in pregnancy if insulin is not an option?

Glyburide

77
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Which drug classes can decrease the effectiveness of sulfonylureas and raise glucose?

Thiazide diuretics and corticosteroids

78
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What is the mechanism of action of thiazolidinediones?

They are peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma agonists that increase insulin sensitivity

79
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How do thiazolidinediones commonly affect body weight?

They often cause weight gain

80
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Besides heart failure risk, what are two major concerns with thiazolidinediones?

Weight gain and edema

81
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Which malignancy has been associated with pioglitazone?

Bladder cancer

82
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Which diabetes drug class primarily increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat?

Thiazolidinediones

83
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Which intervention was more effective than metformin in the Diabetes Prevention Program?

Intensive lifestyle intervention

84
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What urine test is used to screen for diabetic kidney damage?

Urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio

85
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What early kidney marker is used to detect diabetic renal damage?

Urine microalbumin or albumin-to-creatinine ratio

86
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What is the leading cause of death in patients with diabetes mellitus?

Cardiovascular disease

87
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What is the major macrovascular complication of diabetes?

Atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease

88
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What syndrome is marked by hypertension, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and insulin resistance?

Metabolic syndrome

89
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What preprandial glucose range does the American Diabetes Association recommend for most adults?

80 to 130 milligrams per deciliter

90
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What postprandial glucose goal does the American Diabetes Association recommend for most adults?

Less than 180 milligrams per deciliter

91
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What premeal glucose goal is recommended by the American Association of Clinical Endocrinology?

Less than 110 milligrams per deciliter

92
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What blood pressure goal is recommended for many diabetic patients with elevated atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk?

Less than 130 over 80 millimeters of mercury

93
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What hemoglobin A1c goal is recommended for most adults?

Less than 7 percent

94
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How often should hemoglobin A1c be checked in patients who are meeting treatment goals?

Every 6 months

95
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How is diabetic ketoacidosis characterized?

Hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis

96
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How is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state typically characterized?

Severe hyperglycemia with little or no significant ketosis

97
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What are the two major contributors to type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Insulin resistance and beta cell dysfunction

98
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Which diabetes medications are approved for adolescents with type 2 diabetes?

Insulin, metformin, and liraglutide

99
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Which test is preferred for screening gestational diabetes?

Oral glucose tolerance test

100
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At what gestational age is screening for gestational diabetes usually performed?

24 to 28 weeks