Human Biomechanics final

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56 Terms

1
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Which of the following deficits would you not anticipate from radial nerve damage?

A. decreased wrist extension strength

b. decreased radial deviation strength

c. decreased grip strength

d. all of the above are deficits you would anticipate

all of the above are deficits you would anticipate

2
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Which of the following is the best description of scapation?

a. various active motions of scaupla ex) upward rotation

b. various passive motion of scapula ex upward rotation

c. shoulder abduction occuring 35 degrees anterior to frontal plane

d. the 2:1 ratio of glenohumeral motion to scapular motion

shoulder abduction occuring 35 degrees anterior to frontal plane

3
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what is the orientation of the glenoid foss in anatomical postion?

a. Just anterior to frontal plane

b. 35 degrees anterior to frontal plane

c. 15 degrees posterior to frontal plane

d. Just posterior to frontal plane

35 degrees anterior to frontal plane

4
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What is the term that alows the humerus to position correctly in glenoid cavity while

having distal humerus be positioned as it is?

a. Anteversion

b. Retroversion

c. Neutral alignment

d. AC joint kinematics

Retroversion

5
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What is the joint classification of the Sternoclavicular joint?

a. Plane joint

b.Condyloid joint

C. Ellipsoid joint

d. Saddle joint

Saddle joint

6
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Which of the folllowing most accuratle explains the kinematics of the SC joint?

motion in the SC joint translates strongly to scapula, alllowing proper positioning of the glenoid fossa to accept the humeral head

7
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Which of the following best accuratley describes the arthrokinematics at the SC joint?

a. opposite roll slide for elevation and protraction

b. same roll slide for elevation and protraction

c. opposite roll slider for elevation and same roll slide for protraction

d. same roll slide for elevation and opposite roll slide for protraction

opposite roll slider for elevation and same roll slide for protraction

8
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« The ACjoint is a highly stable joint that allows for only small amount of movements to

fine tune position of scapula. Knowing this and the general periarticular connective tissue

at the joint what would be the most likely mechanism of injury that would result in a step

defect at the AC joint?

a. Direct blow from at AC joint going in the inferior medial direction

b. Direct blow at distal clavicle going from inferiorly

c. Direct blow at head of humerus going medially

d. Direct blow at acromion going in the inferior medial direction

Direct blow at acromion going in the inferior medial direction

9
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Which of the following best describes the kinematics at the Scapulothoracic joint?

AC joint

a. Elevation- majority of elevation from SC joint with slight downward rotation at AC joint

b. Protraction- small amounts of protraction from SC joint with considerable IR at AC joint

c. Upward rotation- majority of elevation from the SC joint with downward rotation at AC joint

d. Protraction- majority of protraction from SC joint with upward rotation of AC

joint

Elevation- majority of elevation from SC joint with slight downward rotation at AC joint

10
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Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the glenoid labrum?

a. Creates negative intra-articular pressure which creates suction force at joint

of the humeral head and glenoid fossa

b. Deepens the concave fossa which is particularly important due to size mismatch of humeral head to the glenoid fossa

c. To provide proximal support for joint capsule which will help provide stability of

the entire glenohumeral joint

d. To help facilitate additional passive support of the shoulder complex

Deepens the concave fossa which is particularly important due to size mismatch of humeral head to the glenoid fossa

11
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primary active stabalizer of glenohumeral joint

rotator cuff

12
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which of the following explains why anterior-inferior shoulder dislocations are most common in athletic populations

a. thinning of capsule anteriorly and prevlaence of impact to posterior shoulder during the sport

b. Tendency of athletes especially pitches to have excessive ER which increases

anterior slide in combination with the fact that despite the majority of rotator

cult muscles being anterior, they tend to be weaker then posterior rotator cuff

c Due to the posterior orientation of glenoid fossa, there is increased potential for

anterior translation of shoulder with activity

d. Due to the rotator cuff gap at anterior inferior area of joint capsule, as well as

high stress during cocking phase of throwing

Due to the rotator cuff gap at anterior inferior area of joint capsule, as well as

high stress during cocking phase of throwing

13
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Which of the folowing accurately describes the scapulohumeral kinematics, as well as

how these motions are expressed clinically?

a. For full 360-degree shoulder abduction you would expect 120 degrees of GH abduction and 60 degrees of scapular upward rotation

b. In a normal shoulder that is abducted currently to 150 degrees, you would expect 100 degrees of GH abduction and 50 degrees of scapular upward rotation

c. In a shoulder that is abducted to 180, you would expect 90 degrees of GH abduction and 90 degrees of scapular upward rotation

d. In a shoulder that is flexed to110 degrees, you would expect all 110 degrees to

occur from the GH

In a normal shoulder that is abducted currently to 150 degrees, you would expect 100 degrees of GH abduction and 50 degrees of scapular upward rotation

14
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Which of the following is correct in terms of kinematics and arthrokinematics of the

shoulder complex?

a flexion-superior roll with inferior slide, axis of rotation ML, in the sagittal plane,

180 degrees of available motion

b. ER-anterior roll with posterior slide, axis of rotation AP, in the horizontal plane,

With roughly 90 degrees of available motion

c IR-anterior rol with posterior slide, axis of rotation AP, in the horizontal plane,

with roughly 90 degrees of available motion with shoulder is abducted to 90

d. Abduction-superior rol with inferior slide, axis of rotation AP, in frontal plane,180 degrees of available motion

Abduction-superior roll with inferior slide, axis of rotation AP, in frontal plane,180 degrees of available motion

15
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Which carpometacarpal joints would you expect to be the most mobile?

a. 3rd and 4th

b. 4th and 5th

c. 1st and second

d. 2nd and 3rd

2nd and 3rd

16
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What is the typical orientation of the elbow joint?

a. 15 degrees valgus

b. 10 degrees varus

c. neutral

d. 10 degrees of hyperextension

15 degrees valgus

17
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A patient has had osteophyte formation (boney outgrowth) in the olecranon fossa

resulting in swallowing of this fossa, what would you expect this to cause?

a. Decreased open chain elbow flexion due to opposite roll slide

b. Decreased open chain elbow extension due to earlier onset bony end feel

c. Increased open chain elbow flexion due to same roll slide

d. Medial instability at the elbow

Decreased open chain elbow extension due to earlier onset bony end feel

18
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) You are concerned with damage to the radial collateral ligament at the elbow, what

force at the elbow would you expect increased laxity at?

a. Valgus stress force

b. Varus stress force

c. Flexion stress force

d. Extension stress force

Varus stress force

19
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What is the primary function of the annular ligament?

a. To allow spin at radial head for pronation and supination

b. To provide almost all the stability at the humeroradial joint

c. To provide medial support to radius

d. To alow for roll and slide of radial head during flexion and extension

To allow spin at radial head for pronation and supination

20
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Which describes the axis of rotation for proximal to distal radio ulnar joints?

a, Trochlear notch to styloid process of the radius

b. Radial head to styloid process of radius .

c. Radial head to ulnar head

d. Trochlear notch to ulnar head

Radial head to ulnar head

21
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What is considered neutral wrist pronation/ supination?

a. with arms at side, styloid process of radius pointing anterior in sagittal plane

b. anatomical position

c. with arms at side, styloid process of radius pointing anterolateral

d. with arms at side styloid process of radius pointing medially in frontal plane

with arms at side, styloid process of radius pointing anterior in sagittal plane

22
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Which of the following describes open chain supination of the forearm?

a. Proximal radial head spin with distal same roll slide of ulna on radius

b. Proximal radial head spin with distal same roll slide of radius on ulna

c. Proximal radial head spin with distal opposite roll slide of ulna on radius.

d. Proximal radial head spin with distal opposite roll slide of radius on ulna

Proximal radial head spin with distal same roll slide of radius on ulna

23
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Which of the following most accurately describes the function of lumbricals at the hand?

a.Flex MCP, PIP, DIP

b.Extend MCP, Flex PIP and DIP

c. Extend MCP, PIP, DIP

d. Flex MCP, Extend PIP and DIP

Flex MCP, Extend PIP and DIP

24
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24) Which of the following biomechanics concepts accurately describes what would occur at the wrist if the transverse carpal ligament was not present to prevent bowstringing of the wrist flexors during grasp with a flexed wrist?

a. If the tendons were allowed to come away from the wrist the internal moment arm would become to small to generate force

b. The axis of rotation would shift leading to changes in kinematics

c. The axis of rotation would remain the same, however, considerable muscle imbalances would be predicted due to changes in internal moment arm

d. The internal moment arm at the wrist would remain the same

The axis of rotation would remain the same, however, considerable muscle imbalances would be predicted due to changes in internal moment arm

25
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Fall on outstretched arm typically results in distal radius fracture, scaphoid fracture, or occur distally instead of proximally.

lunate fracture. Which of the following best explains why fractures of the radius typically occur distally instead of proximally.

a. Due distal radius being closer to impact is the primary factor

b. Due to the fact the fracture occurring before the interosseous membrane being able to distribute the forces from radius to ulna effectively

c. Due to distal radius being thinner then proximal radius

d. Most fractures of radius do occur proximally not distally

Due to the fact the fracture occurring before the interosseous membrane being able to distribute the forces from radius to ulna effectively

26
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Approximately what percentage of force through hand is applied to radius?

a. 20%

b. 50%

C. 0%

d. 80%

80%

27
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What is the anatomical orientation of the thumb?

a. 90 degrees of medial rotation

b. 45 degrees of lateral rotation

c.30 degrees of anteriorlateral rotation

d. 15 degrees of anteriormedial rotation

90 degrees of medial rotation

28
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what plane does thumb flexion occur in?

a. sagittal

b. frontal

c. horizontal

d. none of the above

frontal plane

29
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Which best describes one of the reasons why grip weakens with maximal flexion of the

wrist?

a.There is too little overlap at the sarcomere

b.Bowstringing occurs

c. Extensors are overstretched causing opposing passive tension to finger flexion

d. Nerve compression in carpal

Extensors are overstretched causing opposing passive tension to finger flexion

30
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A basketball player thinks they have "jammed" their 2nd finger. After assessment the patient has considerable hyperextension at the DIP. What ligament due to feel is most likely involved?

a. Central band

b.Palmar plate

c. Medial collateral ligament of the finger

d. Lateral collateral ligament of the finger

Palmar plate

31
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1) Which of the following is not considered part of the axial skeleton?

a. Sacrum

b. 12th Rib

c. Xiphoid process

d. Clavicle

clavicle

32
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2) Which of the vertebral segments is the most mobile?

a.Cervical

b. Thoracic

c. Lumbar

d. Sacral

Cervical

33
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Which of the following vertebral levels would you expect to be more oriented towards the sagittal plane?

a. L5

b.T12

c. C4

d. T4

T12

34
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Which of the following accurately describes the natural curvature of the spine with accurate definitions?

a. Kyphosis- concave anterior, convex posterior, primary curvature of C spine

b. Lordosis- concave anterior, convex posterior, primary curvature of C spine

c. Kyphosis- convex anterior, concave posterior, primary curvature of T spine

d. Lordosis- convex anterior, concave posterior, primary curvature of C spine

Lordosis- convex anterior, concave posterior, primary curvature of C spine

35
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What affect would full body extension have on the spine at the T spine

a. Increased kyphosis

b. Increase in natural lordosis

c. Decreased kyphosis

d. Will maintain neutral spine alignment

Decreased kyphosis

36
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What affect would full body flexion have at the sacrococcygeal segment?

a. Increase in lordosis

b.Increase in kyphosis

c. No affect on lordosis

d. No affect on kyphosis

No affect on kyphosis

37
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Which of the following best describes the line of gravity through ideal standing posture?

a. Mastoid process, just anterior to S2, just anterior to hip, just posterior to knee, anterior to ankle

b. Mastoid process, just anterior to S2, just posterior to hip, just anterior to knee, anterior to ankle

C. Mastoid process, just anterior to S2, just anterior to hip, just anterior to knee, anterior to ankle

d. Mastoid process, just anterior to S2, just anterior to hip, just posterior to knee, posterior to ankle

Mastoid process, just anterior to S2, just posterior to hip, just anterior to knee, anterior to ankle

38
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An individual is squatting down holding a 100 pound box held against their body. Their hips and knees and are flexed to roughly 45 degrees with back relatively neutral. Assume the individual weighs roughly 100 pounds. Which of the following would you anticipate creating the largest increase in demand on back extensors?

a. Fully extending arms with the 50 pound box directly anteriorly in front of chest

b. Increasing the weight of the box to 150 pounds, and putting it in a backpack worn normally

c. Raising the 50 pound box directly above headbeing held against their body

d. Flexing forward through back so that center

Fully extending arms with the 50 pound box directly anteriorly in front of chest

39
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Which of the following best describes the tissue make up of ligamentum flavum?

a. The equal mix of collagen to elastin makes for balanced ligamentous support against both large amounts of stretch, and large forces of stretch.

b. The higher amount of collagen forces allows for improved resistance to larger

C. The high amount of elastin lower resistance to forces, but allows support over larger ranges

d. The orientation of the ligament makes it susceptible to very forceful extension

The high amount of elastin lower resistance to forces, but allows support over larger ranges

40
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Which best describes the function of the intertransverse ligament?

a. Limits extension

b. Limits ipsilateral lateral flexion, and flexion

c. Limits ipsilateral lateral flexion, and extension

d. Limits contralateral lateral flexion

Limits contralateral lateral flexion

41
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Understanding the anatomical and biomechanical aspects of the spine which of the following ligaments would you suspect would be required to provide increased support to the intervertebral discs with lumbar extension

a. Anterior longitudinal ligament

b.Ligamentum flavum

c. Posterior longitudinal ligament

d. Intertransverse ligaments

Anterior longitudinal ligament

42
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Which of the following best describes the orientation of C spine facets at C4?

a. Superior facet nearing the horizontal plane

b. Inferior facet anterior inferior at 45 degrees from the horizontal plane

c. Inferior facet posterior superior at 45 degrees from horizontal plane

d. Superior facet anterior inferior at 45 degrees from horizontal plane

Inferior facet anterior inferior at 45 degrees from the horizontal plane

43
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Which of the following would best explain a hard end feel of the thoracic spine with extension

a. Narrowing of the central canal b. Increased inferior angle of the spinous process

c. Increased size of transverse process

d. Articulation of the 11th and 12th ribs

Increased inferior angle of the spinous process

44
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In terms of pure arthrokinematics considering the orientation of the facet joints which of the following segments would you expect to allow for the greatest side bend due to orientation of the facets if no other factors were considered?

a. Cervical

b. Thoracic

c. Lumbar

d. Sacral

Thoracic

45
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What is the primary axis of rotation that occurs when on brings their ear to their shoulder?

a. ML

b. AP

c. Vertical

d. Frontal

AP

46
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Which of the following would place the largest compression on an intervertebral disc, and therefore be the most likely mechanism of injury for a disc?

a.Maximal overhead reaching activities around 180 degrees of shoulder flexion

b. Rotational activity

c. Standing for a prolonged period of time

d. Forward flexion of the lumbar spine

Forward flexion of the lumbar spine

47
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What joint articulation accounts for roughly 50% of the cervical rotation?a. Articulation between skull and C1

b. C1 on C2

c. C2 on C3

d.C4 on CS

C1 on C2

48
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Which of the following accurately describes the osteokinematics of retraction?

a.Extension of lower C spine and flexion of upper C spine

b. Extension of lower C spine and extension of upper C spine

c. Flexion of lower C spine and flexion of upper C spine

d. Flexion of lower C spine and extension of upper C spine

Extension of lower C spine and flexion of upper C spine

49
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Which of the following is the correct description of the arthrokinematics of the atlanto-occipital joint?

a. Ipsilateral inferior posterior glide with sidebending

b. Anterior slide with flexion

c. Anterior slide with extension

d. Contralateral inferior posterior glide with sidebending

Anterior slide with extension

50
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As excessive curvatures of the spine get progressively larger, which of the following is not a factor in progressive worsening of an excessive lumbar lordosis?

a. Progressively larger external moment arms of gravity

b. Progressive tightening of lumbar extensors

c. Progressive lengthening of lumbar flexors

d. Progressive posterior pelvic tilt

Progressive posterior pelvic tilt

51
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An individual is unable to touch their toes in standing with considerable effort. Upon further investigation you find in standing they have 50 degrees of lumbar flexion and 55 degrees of hip flexion. What do you feel is the most likely cause of their deficits?

a. Inadequate lumbar ROM

b. Hypomobility with pelvic tilting

c. Insufficient hamstring flexibility

d. Inadequate eccentric control of lumbar extensors

Insufficient hamstring flexibility

52
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which of the following correctly describes SI joint arthrokinematics? a.Nutation• anterior illac tilt, posterior sacral tilt

b. Counternutation- posterior sacral tilt, anterior iliac tilt

c. Nutation- anterior illac tilt, anterior sacral tiltd.

d. Counternutation- anterior sacral tilt, posterior iliac tilt

Counternutation- posterior sacral tilt, anterior iliac tilt

53
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Which of the following is the best explanation to the size of the central vertebral canal in the thoracie spine?a. Larger then cervical spine due to increased size of thoracic bodies

b. Decreased due to orientation of transverse process to accommodate articulation with ribs

c. Decreased due to orientation of facet joints in the thoracic spine

d. Decreased due to the lack of the thoracic plexus

Decreased due to the lack of the thoracic plexus

54
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Which of the following of the muscles of the posterior trunk deep layer plays the largest role in fine motor control?

a. Erector spinae group

b. Transversospinal group

c. Short segmental group

d. External Oblique

Short segmental group

55
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Which of the following is not typically a characteristic of muscles involved in fine motor activity?

a. Muscle runs the entirety of the vertebral segment to allow coordinated motor

control throughout vertebral segment

b. High density of sensory fibers

c. Increased muscular development in areas that directly affect positioning of a limb for sensory activities such as vision

d. Short segmental muscle fibers

Muscle runs the entirety of the vertebral segment to allow coordinated motor

56
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A patient arrives in the emergency room following a MVA. The patient presents with right-sided facial droop and non-coherent speech, and difficulty raising right arm. No other

injury and injury?

Symptoms noted. Which of the following is the most likely combination of mechanism of

a. Whiplash with a resultant concussion

b. Anterior translation of C4 on C5 due to high shear forces with concerns of potential spinal cord damage

C. Due to severe whiplash with concerns of extensive flexion and extension forces primary concerns are ligament damage with peripheral nerve damage

d. Rotational whiplash incident with concerns of vertebral artery damage

Rotational whiplash incident with concerns of vertebral artery damage